CSFS Course 4
Accounting, Funding and Tax Consequences
How a self-funded plan is funded and accounted for: claims funds and reserves, incurred-but-not-reported liability, cash flow through a plan year, and the tax treatment that follows.
259 practice questions · page 1 of 6, questions 1–50 · answers and explanations included · updated September 2026
50 questions on this page 1 of 6, each with the answer and the reasoning behind it. Read straight through, or quiz yourself on them and the ones you miss stay in rotation until you get them right.
- 1
Which of the following best describes the full range of accounting-dominated functions in a self-funded plan?
- •Compliance audits, claim reserves, and plan funding only
- •Plan-related functions, employer-related functions, tax-related functions, audits, and claim reserves
- •Tax filing, claims processing, and stop-loss procurement only
- •Trust accounting, employer tax filings, and annual report preparation only
Show answer
Plan-related functions, employer-related functions, tax-related functions, audits, and claim reserves
The course outlines five major groupings of accounting-dominated functions: (I) Plan-Related Functions (funding, compliance), (II) Employer-Related (contingencies, retirees, trust accounting, bankruptcy, government contracts), (III) Tax-Related (trust filing, employer filing, employee filing, discrimination issues), (IV) Audits, and (V) Claim Reserves.
- 2
Under the plan-related compliance functions, an independent accountant's statement must accompany which filing?
- •The DOL/IRS Form 5500 annual report for plans meeting the audit threshold
- •The IRS Form 1120 corporate tax return when plan deductions exceed $500,000
- •The IRS Form 990 trust tax filing for all qualified trusts
- •The state insurance department annual compliance certification
Show answer
The DOL/IRS Form 5500 annual report for plans meeting the audit threshold
The plan-related compliance functions include the Annual Report (Form 5500) and the Independent Accountant's Statement. The accountant's audit and opinion are required for the DOL/IRS Form 5500 when the plan meets the participant threshold for an audit requirement.
- 3
ASC 450 and ASC 715 both provide guidance on which employer-related accounting concern?
- •Employer-related claim reserves
- •Stop-loss premium amortization schedules
- •Tax deductions for plan contributions
- •Trust investment income reporting
Show answer
Employer-related claim reserves
The course notes that ASC 450 and ASC 715 provide guidance on employer-related claim reserves, emphasizing detailed disclosures and current assumptions. These standards address how employers should recognize and report contingencies and retirement benefit obligations.
- 4
In the ABC Company hypothetical, Bill the CPA determines there is no contingent liability for Plan A on the employer's GAAP statements. What is the reason?
- •Plan A has stop-loss coverage that eliminates all employer liability for claims
- •Plan A is trusteed, so the risk has been transferred to the trust, and the trust has fully funded the claim reserves
- •Plan A's dental benefits have no catastrophic risk, making the liability immaterial
- •Plan A's participant contributions are sufficient to cover all outstanding claims
Show answer
Plan A is trusteed, so the risk has been transferred to the trust, and the trust has fully funded the claim reserves
Bill determines that Plan A, being trusteed, has transferred the risk to the trust. It is presumed that the trust has fully funded the claim reserves. Therefore, there is no contingent liability for the ABC Company on the employer's GAAP-basis statement.
- 5
In the ABC Company hypothetical, what is the tax deduction formula for Plan A (the trusteed medical plan)?
- •Claims paid for year X plus actuarially determined claim reserve at 12-31-X minus actuarially determined claim reserve at 12-31-X-1
- •Paid claims for year X only, with no adjustment for claim reserves
- •Total contributions to the trust during year X plus any administrative fees paid
- •Total plan costs paid during year X minus participant contributions received
Show answer
Claims paid for year X plus actuarially determined claim reserve at 12-31-X minus actuarially determined claim reserve at 12-31-X-1
For Plan A (trusteed), the deduction is (a) + (b) - (c) where: (a) is claims paid for year X, (b) is actuarially determined claim reserve (not plan obligation) as of 12-31-X, and (c) is actuarially determined claim reserve (not plan obligation) as of 12-31-X-1.
- 6
Why does Plan B (the dental plan) in the ABC Company hypothetical have no material contingent liability?
- •Because dental plans have such small catastrophic risk that the liability is immaterial
- •Because Plan B has fully insured coverage eliminating any employer risk
- •Because Plan B is trusteed and has transferred all risk to the trust
- •Because Plan B uses a premium option plan that shifts liability to participants
Show answer
Because dental plans have such small catastrophic risk that the liability is immaterial
Plan B, being a dental plan with general asset funding, has no material contingent liability because the catastrophic risk associated with dental claims is so small that it fails the materiality threshold for contingent liability recognition.
- 7
In the ABC Company hypothetical, why does John Doe receive an IRS Form 1099 for his employer-provided healthcare benefits?
- •Because all employees receiving self-funded healthcare benefits must receive Form 1099s
- •Because John is an over 2% sub-S corporation owner, whose employer-paid health benefits are taxable income
- •Because John's total compensation exceeds the highly compensated employee threshold
- •Because the plan failed the IRC §105(h) nondiscrimination test
Show answer
Because John is an over 2% sub-S corporation owner, whose employer-paid health benefits are taxable income
John Doe is an over 2% sub-S owner. Under tax rules, the economic value of employer-provided healthcare benefits for sub-S owners with more than 2% ownership must be reported as taxable income on IRS Form 1099.
- 8
According to the course, who should prepare the Form 5500 when an accountant's statement is required?
- •The accountant should always prepare the Form 5500 when an accountant's statement is required
- •The actuary should prepare the Form 5500 since they determine plan obligations
- •The employer's legal counsel should prepare the Form 5500 to ensure compliance
- •The plan supervisor should always prepare the Form 5500 regardless of audit requirements
Show answer
The accountant should always prepare the Form 5500 when an accountant's statement is required
The course states it is good practice that the accountant always does the Form 5500 when an accountant's statement is required. The plan supervisor should prepare the Form 5500 in other instances where no accountant's statement is needed.
- 9
In the ABC Company hypothetical, Bill informs John and Mary that XYZ Administrative Firm needs a specific type of audit. Which one?
- •A DOL compliance audit, because all plan supervisors are required to have one annually
- •SOC 1, because XYZ is a service organization whose controls affect the employer's financial reporting
- •SOC 2, because XYZ handles sensitive health data and must demonstrate privacy controls
- •SOC 3, because the results need to be freely distributed to plan participants
Show answer
SOC 1, because XYZ is a service organization whose controls affect the employer's financial reporting
Bill informs John and Mary that XYZ Administrative Firm is a service organization that needs SOC 1. A SOC 1 audit focuses on a service organization's controls relevant to their clients' internal controls over financial reporting.
- 10
For Plan B (general asset dental plan) in the ABC Company hypothetical, the tax deduction is limited to:
- •Paid claims for year X only
- •Paid claims plus the change in actuarially determined claim reserves
- •The lesser of paid claims or actuarially projected claims for year X
- •Total employer contributions to the plan during year X
Show answer
Paid claims for year X only
For Plan B, which is a general asset plan, the deduction is limited to the paid claims for year X. Unlike the trusteed Plan A, there is no adjustment for changes in actuarially determined claim reserves.
- 11
How do larger national accounting firms sometimes create conflicts of interest when serving as plan vendors?
- •They insist on performing all trust investments through their own brokerage divisions
- •They refuse to share actuarial data with the plan supervisor
- •They require exclusive stop-loss carrier arrangements as a condition of service
- •They use their position as the employer's accountant to promote their own management, risk management, and consulting services
Show answer
They use their position as the employer's accountant to promote their own management, risk management, and consulting services
The course notes that larger national accounting firms have management-type services, and the opportunity to use their position as the employer's accountant to promote their risk management and consulting services is too common to be ignored. They may take work away from plan supervisors by offering the accountant's audit and actuarial work as a package.
- 12
How can a plan supervisor protect itself from having actuarial services taken away by a competing accounting firm?
- •By filing a complaint with the state insurance department about the accounting firm's practices
- •By lowering administrative fees to make it uneconomical for the accounting firm to compete
- •By offering actuarial services as part of its own package of services, through either a staff actuary or a retained actuary
- •By requiring an exclusive services agreement with the employer that prevents outside consulting
Show answer
By offering actuarial services as part of its own package of services, through either a staff actuary or a retained actuary
The course states that plan supervisors may avoid unwanted encroachment by offering actuarial services as part of their package of services. Such actuarial services may be provided by a staff actuary or a retained actuary of the plan supervisor (or a consortium of plan supervisors).
- 13
What is the accountant's responsibility when the first actuary's work product is in doubt?
- •The accountant must accept the actuary's work as presented since actuarial matters are outside the accountant's scope
- •The accountant must independently recalculate all actuarial assumptions without consulting any actuary
- •The accountant must report the actuary to the relevant professional licensing board
- •The services of another actuary may be required to verify or replace the questionable work
Show answer
The services of another actuary may be required to verify or replace the questionable work
The course states that where the first actuary's work product is in doubt, the service of another actuary may be required. This is one of the principles governing the relationship between plan accountants and actuaries, as set forth in ASC 980.
- 14
When coordinating with the plan actuary, the accountant relies on the actuary's work but must also perform its own evaluation. What specific tests does the accountant conduct?
- •A peer review of the actuary's professional credentials through the Society of Actuaries
- •Audit-type tests of the actuary's work product regarding reasonableness of methods and assumptions, results, and expertise of the actuary
- •Independent actuarial calculations using different mortality tables and discount rates
- •Statistical sampling of individual claims to verify the actuary's aggregate projections
Show answer
Audit-type tests of the actuary's work product regarding reasonableness of methods and assumptions, results, and expertise of the actuary
The course specifies that the accountant relies on the work of the actuary but does its own audit-type tests of the actuary's work product regarding reasonableness of methods and assumptions, results, and expertise of the actuary. The accountant must also be satisfied with the professional qualifications and reputation of the actuary.
- 15
The principles governing the relationship between accountants and actuaries are set forth in which accounting standard?
- •ASC 450 (Contingencies)
- •ASC 715 (Compensation—Retirement Benefits)
- •ASC 820 (Fair Value Measurement)
- •ASC 980 (Regulated Operations)
Show answer
ASC 980 (Regulated Operations)
The course states that the principles governing the joint endeavors of accountants and actuaries are set forth in ASC 980—Regulated Operations. These include requirements for coordination, reliance on actuarial work, and verification of the actuary's qualifications.
- 16
Under ASC 450, when must a loss contingency be accrued (recorded in the financial statements)?
- •When it is probable that a liability has been incurred AND the amount can be reasonably estimated
- •When it is reasonably possible that a loss will occur, regardless of whether the amount can be estimated
- •When management determines that disclosure in footnotes would be insufficient for investor protection
- •When the loss is remote but the potential amount exceeds a materiality threshold
Show answer
When it is probable that a liability has been incurred AND the amount can be reasonably estimated
ASC 450 requires that a loss contingency be accrued when two criteria are met: (1) it is probable that a liability has been incurred, and (2) the amount can be reasonably estimated. If both criteria are not met, the contingency may still require disclosure depending on its likelihood and potential impact.
- 17
Under ASC 450, if a range of loss is estimated and no single amount within the range is more likely than another, what amount should be accrued?
- •No amount should be accrued; only footnote disclosure is required
- •The maximum amount in the range to be financially conservative
- •The midpoint of the range as the best estimate
- •The minimum amount in the range
Show answer
The minimum amount in the range
ASC 450 specifies that if a range of loss is estimated and no single amount within the range is more likely, the minimum amount in the range should be accrued. This represents a conservative approach while still recognizing the contingent liability.
- 18
ASC 450 classifies the likelihood of a contingency into three categories. Which classification means the chance of occurrence is more than remote but less than probable?
- •Probable
- •Reasonably possible
- •Remote
- •Uncertain
Show answer
Reasonably possible
ASC 450 uses three categories of likelihood: Probable (likely to occur), Reasonably Possible (more than remote but less than probable), and Remote (slight chance of occurring). The 'reasonably possible' classification sits between the other two.
- 19
How does ASC 450 treat gain contingencies compared to loss contingencies?
- •Both gain and loss contingencies are disclosed in footnotes only and never accrued
- •Gain contingencies and loss contingencies follow identical recognition criteria based on probability and estimability
- •Gain contingencies are not recognized until they are realized or virtually certain to be realized, unlike loss contingencies which may be accrued when probable and estimable
- •Gain contingencies must be accrued immediately when reasonably possible, while loss contingencies require probability
Show answer
Gain contingencies are not recognized until they are realized or virtually certain to be realized, unlike loss contingencies which may be accrued when probable and estimable
ASC 450 applies an asymmetric approach: loss contingencies are accrued if probable and reasonably estimable, but gain contingencies are not recognized until they are realized or virtually certain to be realized. Disclosure of material gain contingencies is encouraged but not required until realized.
- 20
Which of the following is NOT an example of a loss contingency under ASC 450?
- •Environmental remediation liabilities
- •Expected future revenue from a new product line
- •Lawsuits or legal claims against the company
- •Product warranty obligations
Show answer
Expected future revenue from a new product line
ASC 450 addresses loss contingencies such as lawsuits, product warranties, environmental liabilities, and uncertain tax positions. Expected future revenue would be a gain contingency or revenue recognition matter, not a loss contingency.
- 21
What does ASC 450 require for general asset self-funded plans regarding claim reserves?
- •Claim reserves are optional disclosures that may appear in footnotes rather than on the balance sheet
- •Claim reserves must equal the stop-loss deductible amount regardless of actual claim experience
- •Material reserves for self-funded risks must be shown as a liability on audited statements, including both reported and unreported claims reserves
- •Only reported claims need to be shown; unreported claims are excluded from balance sheet recognition
Show answer
Material reserves for self-funded risks must be shown as a liability on audited statements, including both reported and unreported claims reserves
ASC 450 requires that material reserves for self-funded risks be shown as a liability on audited statements. This includes both reported and unreported claims reserves, emphasizing the need for detailed and transparent disclosures about the nature and amount of these reserves.
- 22
Under ASC 715, what is the projected benefit obligation (PBO) for a defined benefit plan?
- •The accumulated benefit obligation adjusted only for the expected return on plan assets
- •The amount of benefits currently vested and payable to employees upon termination
- •The present value of expected benefits earned by employees up to the measurement date, including future salary increases if applicable
- •The total undiscounted amount of benefits that will be paid to current retirees over their remaining lifetimes
Show answer
The present value of expected benefits earned by employees up to the measurement date, including future salary increases if applicable
Under ASC 715, the projected benefit obligation (PBO) is defined as the present value of expected benefits earned by employees up to the measurement date, including future salary increases (if applicable). This forward-looking measure captures the full economic obligation of the plan.
- 23
Which of the following is NOT a component of net periodic pension cost under ASC 715?
- •Employer contributions to the plan during the period
- •Expected return on plan assets
- •Interest cost on the benefit obligation due to passage of time
- •Service cost for benefits earned by employees during the period
Show answer
Employer contributions to the plan during the period
Net periodic pension cost under ASC 715 includes service cost, interest cost, expected return on plan assets, amortization of prior service costs and actuarial gains or losses, and other adjustments. Employer contributions are a cash flow item that affects the funded status but are not a component of the periodic pension expense.
- 24
ASU 2017-07 changed how pension and OPEB expense components are presented in financial statements. What was the key change?
- •All pension and OPEB expense components must be combined into a single line item on the income statement
- •Employers may choose to present all components either together or separately based on materiality
- •Only service cost and interest cost may appear on the income statement; all other components go to other comprehensive income
- •Service cost must be presented with other employee compensation costs, while other components like interest cost and expected return on plan assets must be presented separately
Show answer
Service cost must be presented with other employee compensation costs, while other components like interest cost and expected return on plan assets must be presented separately
ASU 2017-07, issued by FASB, clarified that the service cost component of pension and OPEB expense should be presented in the same line item as other employee compensation costs, while other components (interest cost, expected return on plan assets, etc.) should be presented separately outside of operating income.
- 25
Under ASC 715, OPEB (other postretirement benefits other than pensions) includes which types of benefits?
- •Benefits like healthcare and life insurance provided to retirees
- •Only disability benefits for active employees
- •Only pension benefits provided through defined benefit plans
- •Only severance pay provided upon involuntary termination
Show answer
Benefits like healthcare and life insurance provided to retirees
OPEB under ASC 715 includes benefits like healthcare and life insurance provided to retirees, often under the same general plan provisions as pensions. The accounting for OPEB involves recognizing a postretirement benefit obligation and periodic expense similar to pension accounting.
- 26
How does ASC 715 require actuarial gains and losses for defined benefit plans to be treated?
- •They are deferred and recognized only upon plan termination or settlement
- •They are generally recognized in other comprehensive income (OCI) and amortized into net periodic pension cost over time
- •They are recognized entirely through adjustments to the plan's funded status without impacting the income statement
- •They must be recognized immediately in the income statement as a separate line item
Show answer
They are generally recognized in other comprehensive income (OCI) and amortized into net periodic pension cost over time
Under ASC 715, changes in pension or OPEB obligations such as actuarial gains or losses are generally recognized in other comprehensive income (OCI) and amortized into net periodic pension cost over time. This smoothing mechanism prevents large one-time impacts on net income.
- 27
Which actuarial assumption under ASC 715 is specifically essential for calculating OPEB obligations?
- •Expected employee turnover rates by department
- •Healthcare cost trend rates
- •Mortality tables for active employees only
- •Projected inflation rates for office supplies and administrative costs
Show answer
Healthcare cost trend rates
For OPEB under ASC 715, assumptions related to healthcare cost increases (healthcare cost trend rates) are essential because rising healthcare costs directly drive the obligation for retiree health benefits. Other assumptions like discount rate, expected return on plan assets, and salary growth also apply, but healthcare cost trends are specifically crucial for OPEB.
- 28
How does ASC 715 apply to VEBAs funding OPEB obligations?
- •Contributions to the VEBA may reduce the recognized OPEB liability since plan assets held in the VEBA offset the obligation
- •The VEBA's tax-exempt status eliminates the need to recognize any OPEB liability on the employer's books
- •VEBA assets are not considered plan assets under ASC 715 and cannot offset OPEB liabilities
- •VEBAs are exempt from ASC 715 because they are governed exclusively by IRS regulations
Show answer
Contributions to the VEBA may reduce the recognized OPEB liability since plan assets held in the VEBA offset the obligation
Under ASC 715, the fair value of assets in a VEBA must be recognized as part of the OPEB plan's assets. Contributions to a VEBA may reduce the recognized liability for OPEB since the plan assets held in the VEBA offset the liability. The employer must also recognize periodic benefit cost including service cost and interest on the accumulated liability.
- 29
Under ASC 715, the discount rate used to calculate the present value of future OPEB obligations should be based on what?
- •The employer's weighted average cost of capital
- •The expected return on plan assets invested in the VEBA
- •The federal funds rate published by the Federal Reserve
- •The yield of high-quality corporate bonds
Show answer
The yield of high-quality corporate bonds
ASC 715 requires that the discount rate used for calculating present value of future OPEB obligations reflect the time value of money and be based on the yield of high-quality corporate bonds. This rate directly affects the size of the liability recognized on the balance sheet.
- 30
Which of the following important facts about postretirement healthcare benefits is identified in the course as contributing to growing employer liabilities?
- •Declining healthcare costs due to technology improvements
- •Federal legislation requiring employers to eliminate all retiree health benefits
- •The increasing percentage of the population over age 65 and the trend toward early retirement
- •The shift from defined benefit to defined contribution retirement plans
Show answer
The increasing percentage of the population over age 65 and the trend toward early retirement
The course identifies several important factors contributing to growing postretirement healthcare liabilities, including rising healthcare costs, Medicare changes making it secondary to employer-provided coverage, demographic shifts (increasing population over 65 and early retirement trends), and emerging legal patterns making it difficult to escape retiree health commitments.
- 31
How does ASC 715 handle multiemployer plans where multiple employers contribute to a single plan?
- •It exempts multiemployer plans from all ASC 715 disclosure requirements
- •It focuses on how to account for each employer's share of the contributions and liabilities in those plans
- •It requires each employer to recognize the entire plan's unfunded liability on its own balance sheet
- •It requires the plan to be treated as a defined contribution plan regardless of the actual benefit structure
Show answer
It focuses on how to account for each employer's share of the contributions and liabilities in those plans
ASC 715 provides specific guidance on accounting for multiemployer plans where multiple employers contribute to a single plan. The focus is on how to account for each individual employer's share of the contributions and liabilities, rather than requiring each employer to recognize the entire plan's obligations.
- 32
What is the primary difference between how ASC 715 and IRS regulations treat VEBA contributions?
- •ASC 715 applies only to qualified trusts while IRS regulations apply only to nonqualified trusts
- •ASC 715 focuses on the accounting liability offset from contributions, while IRS regulations govern whether contributions are tax-deductible and ensure they are not excessive
- •ASC 715 limits contributions to 35% of plan costs while IRS regulations have no upper limit
- •ASC 715 requires contributions to be made annually while IRS regulations allow multi-year contributions
Show answer
ASC 715 focuses on the accounting liability offset from contributions, while IRS regulations govern whether contributions are tax-deductible and ensure they are not excessive
The interaction of ASC 715 and IRS regulations shows different focuses: contributions to a VEBA may reduce the recognized OPEB liability under ASC 715, while under IRS rules the same contributions must be tax-deductible, reasonable, and not excessive in relation to future obligations. The timing and amount of contributions affect both the accounting and tax treatment.
- 33
Under IRS regulations, what happens to a VEBA's tax-exempt status if it accumulates excess funds not used to provide benefits?
- •The excess funds are automatically transferred to the employer's general assets
- •The excess funds are subject to a 10% excise tax but the exempt status is preserved
- •The tax-exempt status of the trust could be jeopardized
- •The VEBA must convert to a nonqualified trust under IRC §419A
Show answer
The tax-exempt status of the trust could be jeopardized
IRS regulations require that employers ensure the VEBA does not accumulate excess funds that are not used to provide benefits, as this could jeopardize the tax-exempt status of the trust. Contributions must be reasonable in relation to the expected future costs of the benefits.
- 34
COBRA participants and active employees share the same risk pool for cost-sharing purposes. How are retirees treated differently?
- •Retirees are combined with COBRA participants in a single risk pool
- •Retirees are excluded from all risk pools and their costs are charged directly to the employer
- •Retirees are set apart into their own separate risk pool, distinct from actives and COBRAs
- •Retirees remain in the active employee risk pool until they reach Medicare eligibility
Show answer
Retirees are set apart into their own separate risk pool, distinct from actives and COBRAs
COBRAs and active employees share the same risk pool and are treated similarly for cost-sharing purposes. Retirees, however, are set apart into their own separate risk pool. Actuaries demand this bifurcated pooling as part of their determination of the retiree accrued liability computations, ensuring that higher retiree healthcare costs do not unduly impact cost-sharing calculations for active employees.
- 35
If John retires at age 60 as a COBRA participant and decides to return to the company at age 63 as a rehire, how is he treated plan-wise?
- •He is treated as having continuous or unbroken coverage because as a COBRA participant he has not left the family plan
- •He must satisfy a new waiting period and any preexisting condition limitations upon rehire
- •He retains COBRA rights but is placed in a separate risk pool from active employees
- •His coverage is retroactively cancelled and he must enroll as a new employee
Show answer
He is treated as having continuous or unbroken coverage because as a COBRA participant he has not left the family plan
The course explains that a COBRA participant who returns as a rehire is treated as having continuous or unbroken coverage. While a COBRA, John has not left the family plan, so his rehire preserves continuity. This is one of the key benefit advantages COBRAs have over early retirees.
- 36
If John and Mary (husband and wife) are COBRA participants and later separate or divorce, what happens to Mary's coverage?
- •Mary is converted to retiree status and moved to the retiree risk pool
- •Mary may elect continuation coverage in her own right as a freestanding and independent plan participant
- •Mary must reapply for COBRA and start a new 18-month coverage period
- •Mary's coverage automatically terminates because it was dependent on John's qualifying event
Show answer
Mary may elect continuation coverage in her own right as a freestanding and independent plan participant
The course identifies this as a key benefit difference between COBRAs and retirees. At the time of John's qualifying event, John and Mary may elect separate or individual coverage as freestanding participants. If they later separate or divorce, Mary may elect continuation in her own right under COBRA regulations.
- 37
What federal protection do early retirees have regarding their health benefits compared to COBRA participants?
- •Both early retirees and COBRA participants have identical federal protections under ERISA
- •Early retirees are not afforded any federal protection because of ERISA preemption, while COBRA rights are federally governed
- •Early retirees have federal protection through Medicare supplemental coverage mandates
- •Early retirees have stronger federal protection than COBRA participants through the Retiree Benefits Protection Act
Show answer
Early retirees are not afforded any federal protection because of ERISA preemption, while COBRA rights are federally governed
The course states that for government entities, COBRA rights are governed by federal statute (Public Health Service Act §§2201 et seq.), while early retiree rights are not afforded any federal protection because of ERISA preemption. This is a significant distinction in the level of protection available.
- 38
COBRA premiums are regulated differently from retiree premiums. What key protection do COBRA participants have?
- •COBRA premiums are set by the state insurance department at a fixed percentage of plan costs
- •COBRA premiums are subsidized by the employer and cannot exceed the employee-only contribution rate
- •COBRA premiums cannot exceed 50% of the active employee premium rate
- •COBRA premiums must be actuarially determined and such computations are federally regulated
Show answer
COBRA premiums must be actuarially determined and such computations are federally regulated
Where the COBRA premium is paid in whole or part by the participant, the COBRA participant knows that such premiums must be actuarially determined and are federally regulated. Retiree premiums, by contrast, are not subject to the same federal regulations. COBRA participants may pay the full cost plus a 2% administrative fee.
- 39
Some states have 'mini-COBRA' laws. How does California's mini-COBRA law differ from the federal standard?
- •California allows for up to 36 months of continuation coverage, compared to the federal minimum of 18 months
- •California exempts employers with fewer than 100 employees from all COBRA requirements
- •California requires COBRA coverage to be offered only to employees terminating involuntarily
- •California requires employers to subsidize 50% of the COBRA premium for all qualifying events
Show answer
California allows for up to 36 months of continuation coverage, compared to the federal minimum of 18 months
The course uses California as an example of state-specific mini-COBRA regulations. California allows for up to 36 months of continuation coverage, which is double the federal minimum of 18 months. This extended period can affect total premium costs for participants.
- 40
Which of the following is included in the definition of postemployment benefits under ASC 715?
- •All types of benefits provided to former or inactive employees after employment but before retirement, including salary continuation, severance, and disability benefits
- •Only healthcare benefits provided to employees who have reached normal retirement age
- •Only pension benefits provided through a defined benefit plan
- •Only workers' compensation benefits administered through a state program
Show answer
All types of benefits provided to former or inactive employees after employment but before retirement, including salary continuation, severance, and disability benefits
ASC 715 establishes that postemployment benefits include all types of benefits provided to former or inactive employees, their beneficiaries, and covered dependents. These include salary continuation, supplemental unemployment benefits, severance benefits, disability-related benefits, job training and counseling, and continuation of healthcare and life insurance.
- 41
ASC 715 for postemployment benefits includes a four-prong test that must be met. Which of the following correctly lists those four prongs?
- •Attribution to prior service, vesting of benefits, probability of high payments, and amounts payable reasonably estimable
- •Employee eligibility, benefit computation, funding adequacy, and tax compliance
- •Plan document compliance, fiduciary duty satisfaction, actuarial certification, and regulatory filing
- •Probability of occurrence, reasonable estimation, materiality threshold, and disclosure requirement
Show answer
Attribution to prior service, vesting of benefits, probability of high payments, and amounts payable reasonably estimable
ASC 715 supplements FAS 43 guidance by applying a four-prong test: (1) attribution to prior service, (2) vesting of benefits, (3) probability of high payments, and (4) amounts payable reasonably estimable. This test originally addressed sick pay and vacation plans under FAS 43 and extends to postemployment benefits under ASC 715.
- 42
When a self-funded healthcare benefit is fully insured rather than self-funded, how does ASC 715 apply to the employer?
- •ASC 715 applies identically whether the plan is self-funded or fully insured
- •ASC 715 does not apply because the insurer bears the burden of risk spreading and recognizing emerging liabilities; the employer only pays premiums as invoiced
- •ASC 715 requires the employer to accrue a liability equal to 50% of the annual premium cost
- •ASC 715 still requires the employer to recognize a liability for the present value of future premiums
Show answer
ASC 715 does not apply because the insurer bears the burden of risk spreading and recognizing emerging liabilities; the employer only pays premiums as invoiced
The course states that where fully insured funding is used, ASC 715 does not apply. The burden of risk spreading and recognizing emerging liabilities is the responsibility of the insurer. The employer's only burden is to pay the insurance premiums as invoiced.
- 43
Under ASC 715, the active life liability for postemployment healthcare benefits is only recognized under what conditions?
- •When either the claim costs increase by the attained age of the participant or benefits increase significantly by years of service
- •When the employer has more than 100 participants and the plan is self-funded
- •When the total plan costs exceed 5% of the employer's annual revenue
- •Whenever any self-funded healthcare benefit exists, regardless of claim cost patterns
Show answer
When either the claim costs increase by the attained age of the participant or benefits increase significantly by years of service
The active life liability is only recognized where either the claim costs increase by the attained age of the participant or benefits are increased significantly by the participant's years of service. Absent both of these conditions, there is no active life liability to recognize.
- 44
Why does ASC 715 specify that long-term and short-term disability benefits should be treated separately?
- •Because long-term disability is always self-funded while short-term disability is always fully insured
- •Because long-term disability is governed by ASC 450 while short-term disability falls under ASC 715
- •Because participants may have repeated or intermittent short-term benefits but generally only one long-term benefit over a working lifetime
- •Because the IRS requires separate tax reporting for each type of disability benefit
Show answer
Because participants may have repeated or intermittent short-term benefits but generally only one long-term benefit over a working lifetime
The course explains that long-term and short-term disability benefits should be treated separately because participants may have repeated or intermittent short-term benefits but generally only one long-term benefit over a working lifetime. This difference in frequency and duration affects the actuarial calculation of liabilities.
- 45
What are the special ways government entities must give attention to self-funded plans?
- •Contingency reserves, retired participants, special state statutes, and possible audit of COBRA premium computations
- •Federal tax filing requirements, ERISA compliance audits, and IRS Form 990 submissions
- •Stop-loss carrier audits, DOL enforcement actions, and PBGC premiums
- •Trust accounting, IRC §419A compliance, and independent accountant statements
Show answer
Contingency reserves, retired participants, special state statutes, and possible audit of COBRA premium computations
Government entities must give special attention to four areas: (1) contingency reserves, (2) retired participants, (3) special state statutes (such as those in Iowa, Florida, Ohio, Idaho, California, and New York), and (4) possible audit of COBRA premium computations. These entities are non-ERISA regulated, so there are no independent audits for Form 5500.
- 46
Why do government entity self-funded plans normally have no tax-related filings such as IRS Form 990?
- •Because ERISA exempts all government entity plans from IRS reporting requirements
- •Because government entities are not taxpayers, so there would normally be no tax-related filings
- •Because government plans are fully insured through state guarantee funds
- •Because government plans use general asset funding which does not require trust tax returns
Show answer
Because government entities are not taxpayers, so there would normally be no tax-related filings
Since government entity self-funded plans are non-ERISA regulated, there would be no independent audits for the Form 5500. Also, since such entities are not taxpayers, there would normally be no tax-related filings (IRS Form 990, for example).
- 47
According to the course, bankruptcy and self-funded healthcare plans should be considered in how many distinct circumstances?
- •Four: plan reorganization, employer reorganization, trust reorganization, and stop-loss carrier insolvency
- •One: only when the employer files for bankruptcy under Chapter 7
- •Three: the plan itself must reorganize, an employer with a general asset plan must reorganize, and an employer supporting a trusteed plan must reorganize
- •Two: employer liquidation and plan termination
Show answer
Three: the plan itself must reorganize, an employer with a general asset plan must reorganize, and an employer supporting a trusteed plan must reorganize
The course identifies three circumstances for considering bankruptcy and self-funded healthcare plans: (1) plan itself must reorganize, (2) employer with a general asset plan must reorganize, and (3) employer supporting a trusteed plan must reorganize. Each has distinct implications.
- 48
In the bankruptcy scenario, Employer M's $250,000 IBNR reserve was not recognized on the balance sheet. According to the CPA commentary, was this appropriate?
- •No, but only because the employer was approaching bankruptcy; otherwise it would have been acceptable
- •No, the IBNR should have been recognized as a liability under generally accepted accounting principles, and choosing not to record it was not a legitimate option
- •Yes, because IBNR reserves are never required to be recognized on the balance sheet for general asset plans
- •Yes, because the $250,000 was below the standard materiality threshold for self-funded plans
Show answer
No, the IBNR should have been recognized as a liability under generally accepted accounting principles, and choosing not to record it was not a legitimate option
The CPA commentary states that the $250,000 IBNR should have been recognized as a liability under generally accepted accounting principles. Accounting Research Bulletin No. 43 requires current liabilities to include estimated amounts for known obligations. Choosing not to record the liability is not a legitimate option of the employer.
- 49
In bankruptcy, unpaid self-funded healthcare plan benefits will normally fall into which priority class?
- •Priority 1 — administrative expenses
- •Priority 3 — unsecured claims for wages and sick pay
- •Priority 4 — unsecured claims from employee benefit plans
- •Priority 5 — other unsecured claims
Show answer
Priority 5 — other unsecured claims
Normally, unpaid self-funded healthcare plan benefits will fall in Priority 5 (other unsecured claims). This means participants stand in line alongside the employer's regular creditors. Unpaid fixed costs like stop-loss premiums and administrative fees will normally fall in Priority 4.
- 50
In the Employer M bankruptcy factual situation, participant John's $80,000 hospital bill incurred after the plan terminated is not a plan benefit. What solution does the plan supervisor commentary suggest?
- •Have stop-loss carriers extend coverage on a modified-paid basis to cover the balance of a hospitalization that commenced while stop-loss was in effect and was ongoing when the contract ceased
- •Have the employer purchase COBRA continuation coverage for all hospitalized participants at the time of bankruptcy
- •Require the hospital to absorb the post-termination costs as charity care under federal mandate
- •Transfer the ongoing claim to the state guarantee fund for payment as an insurance claim
Show answer
Have stop-loss carriers extend coverage on a modified-paid basis to cover the balance of a hospitalization that commenced while stop-loss was in effect and was ongoing when the contract ceased
The plan supervisor commentary explains that services in the hospital after the plan termination date are not covered expenses, since no employer is well-advised to offer a plan benefit for which there is no recognition as a stop-loss claim. The solution is to have stop-loss carriers extend coverage on a modified-paid basis to cover the balance of a hospitalization that commenced while the stop-loss was in effect.
CSFS is the Certified Self-Funding Specialist designation. These are my own practice questions, written while studying for the exam. This site is not affiliated with, endorsed by, or connected to the organisation that administers the CSFS designation, and nothing here is official exam content or a substitute for the course material.
Studying now, placing business later
When you are ready to quote one, the directory lists the markets, DPC providers, RBP vendors, PBMs and administrators that serve each state — with what each one publishes about group size and underwriting.
Spotted a wrong answer? Email sam@edw4rds.com and it gets fixed.