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CSFS Course 6

State Regulations and Federally Mandated Benefits

Where ERISA preemption ends and state authority begins, what states may regulate for a self-funded plan, and the federal benefit mandates that apply regardless.

225 practice questions · page 1 of 5, questions 1–50 · answers and explanations included · updated September 2026

50 questions on this page 1 of 5, each with the answer and the reasoning behind it. Read straight through, or quiz yourself on them and the ones you miss stay in rotation until you get them right.

  1. 1

    The course identifies several reasons to carefully examine state regulation of healthcare plans. Which of the following is NOT one of the stated reasons?

    • ERISA preemption is not global, so requirements affecting TPAs, brokers, and managed care may not be preempted
    • Self-funders often design their plans as fully insured clones and need to know which state-mandated requirements are preempted
    • Some plans such as MEWAs are self-funded but are by statutory edict operated to a great extent as fully insured plans
    • State regulators have exclusive authority to audit self-funded plan reserves and require corrective action
    Show answer

    State regulators have exclusive authority to audit self-funded plan reserves and require corrective action

    The course lists four reasons: (1) self-funders design plans as insured clones and want to know what is preempted, (2) ERISA preemption is not global, (3) the role of the state is constantly changing, and (4) some plans like MEWAs operate as fully insured by statutory edict. State regulators having exclusive audit authority over self-funded plan reserves is not stated.

  2. 2

    Regarding ERISA preemption and state data breach notification laws, what does the course indicate about the current legal landscape?

    • ERISA preemption of state privacy laws applies only to MEWAs and church plans, not to single-employer self-funded plans
    • Federal courts have uniformly held that ERISA preempts all state data breach notification laws when applied to self-funded plans
    • Some courts have held ERISA preempts state privacy laws applied to ERISA-covered plans, while other courts have reached the opposite conclusion, requiring case-by-case analysis
    • The Department of Labor issued final guidance confirming that state data breach laws are never preempted because they do not relate to benefit plans
    Show answer

    Some courts have held ERISA preempts state privacy laws applied to ERISA-covered plans, while other courts have reached the opposite conclusion, requiring case-by-case analysis

    The course states that many states have recently adopted data breach notification laws. Some courts have held that ERISA preempts state privacy laws when they apply to ERISA-covered plans, while other courts have reached the opposite conclusion. The course advises that each state law should be examined to determine whether it is likely preempted.

  3. 3

    The course describes two methods by which group requirements may be applied extraterritorially. Which of the following correctly identifies both methods?

    • By employer domicile (requiring the employer's home state rules apply) and by participant residence (requiring each participant's home state rules apply)
    • By federal mandate (ERISA requires uniform extraterritorial application) and by interstate compact (states agree to reciprocal enforcement)
    • By licensing (the state where the insurer does business requires compliance with its group requirements) and by state of delivery (requiring certificates issued to residents meet minimum coverage of their state)
    • By master contract situs (the state where the master policy is filed governs all certificates) and by agent licensing (the agent's home state rules apply)
    Show answer

    By licensing (the state where the insurer does business requires compliance with its group requirements) and by state of delivery (requiring certificates issued to residents meet minimum coverage of their state)

    The course explains that extraterritorial application of group requirements occurs in two ways: (1) By Licensing — a state may require an insurer to meet all of its group requirements as a condition to retaining the insurer's license to do business in that state; and (2) By State of Delivery — a state may require that certificates issued to its residents meet its minimum coverage requirements, even though the master contract was delivered in another state.

  4. 4

    Regarding the extraterritorial application of state-mandated group benefits, what does the course identify as the current trend and the practical regulatory posture?

    • Federal legislation has resolved the extraterritorial question by requiring all states to honor the mandated benefits of the master contract state exclusively
    • Many states are now administering their mandated benefits laws extraterritorially, and special-interest groups are pushing for all mandated benefits laws to be applied extraterritorially
    • Most states have agreed to defer to the state where the master contract was delivered, and no significant special-interest pressure exists to change this approach
    • State regulators have uniformly adopted a reciprocal-recognition framework that eliminates the need for extraterritorial application of mandated benefits
    Show answer

    Many states are now administering their mandated benefits laws extraterritorially, and special-interest groups are pushing for all mandated benefits laws to be applied extraterritorially

    The course notes that because of uncertain law, state regulators historically tended not to require certificates delivered in their states to provide their state's mandated benefits when the master contract was delivered elsewhere. However, the current trend is that many states are now administering their mandated benefits laws extraterritorially, and special-interest groups seeking mandated benefits are attempting to have all mandated benefits laws administered extraterritorially.

  5. 5

    The course notes that confusion about ERISA exemption status continues to be a problem. In cases where plan leaders are not 100% certain the plan is ERISA-exempt, what does the course recommend?

    • It is wise to have access to the impact of state regulations in case the plan fails the ERISA-exemption test
    • The plan should immediately file for ERISA coverage with the Department of Labor to avoid any regulatory gap
    • The plan should obtain a private letter ruling from the IRS confirming its exempt status before continuing operations
    • The plan should operate under the most restrictive state's mandated benefits to ensure full compliance regardless of ERISA status
    Show answer

    It is wise to have access to the impact of state regulations in case the plan fails the ERISA-exemption test

    The course specifically states that confusion about what constitutes a self-funded plan and when an ERISA exception (church and state plans) applies continues to be a problem. In cases where plan leaders are not 100% certain the plan is ERISA-exempt, it is wise to have access to the impact of state regulations in case the plan fails the ERISA-exemption test.

  6. 6

    Which NAIC model act establishes criteria for the issuance of stop-loss insurance policies, and why does the course consider it particularly important for TPAs?

    • MO-10 (Health Insurance Reserves Model Regulation), because it sets minimum reserve standards that directly govern stop-loss attachment points
    • MO-100 (Group Health Insurance Standards Model Act), because stop-loss policies are classified as group health insurance and subject to its standard provisions
    • MO-120 (Coordination of Benefits Model Regulation), because stop-loss reimbursements must be coordinated with primary plan benefits under its rules
    • MO-92 (Stop Loss Insurance Model Act), because many TPA clients purchase stop-loss insurance and the TPA must understand the legal rules to properly structure the plan and advise customers
    Show answer

    MO-92 (Stop Loss Insurance Model Act), because many TPA clients purchase stop-loss insurance and the TPA must understand the legal rules to properly structure the plan and advise customers

    The course identifies MO-92 (Stop Loss Insurance Model Act) as establishing criteria for the issuance of stop-loss insurance policies. It is specifically flagged as important for TPAs because many TPA clients purchase stop-loss insurance, and the exact terms such as attachment points, minimum employer size, and scope of coverage are dictated by state law. A TPA must understand these rules to properly structure the plan and advise its customers.

  7. 7

    According to the course, which NAIC model regulation establishes a uniform order of benefit determination under which plans pay claims, and why is it relevant to TPAs?

    • MO-100 (Group Health Insurance Standards Model Act), because it delineates which group health plans have primary payment responsibility
    • MO-120 (Coordination of Benefits Model Regulation), because courts sometimes look to it to resolve disputes between self-funded and fully insured plans about which plan pays first
    • MO-30 (Standardized Health Claim Form Model Regulation), because standardized claim forms determine the order in which plans receive and process claims
    • MO-903 (Unfair Life, Accident and Health Claims Settlement Practices Model Regulation), because it establishes minimum standards for claim disposition priority
    Show answer

    MO-120 (Coordination of Benefits Model Regulation), because courts sometimes look to it to resolve disputes between self-funded and fully insured plans about which plan pays first

    The course identifies MO-120 (Coordination of Benefits Model Regulation) as establishing a uniform order of benefit determination, reducing duplication of benefits, and providing greater efficiency in claims processing when a person is covered under more than one plan. The HCAA comment notes that courts sometimes look to this model regulation to help resolve disputes between self-funded and fully insured plans about which plan must pay first.

  8. 8

    The NAIC model MO-220 addresses the prevention of illegal MEWAs. According to the course, what specific risk does this model regulation help TPAs manage?

    • TPAs face the risk that MEWA participants will file individual claims directly against the TPA rather than against the MEWA trust
    • TPAs may be asked to administer a plan involving unrelated employers, which raises the concern that the arrangement could be an unapproved MEWA that is illegal under state law
    • TPAs may inadvertently become co-fiduciaries of an illegal MEWA by processing claims, making them jointly liable for all plan debts
    • TPAs must register each MEWA arrangement with the NAIC directly, and failure to do so subjects the TPA to federal penalties
    Show answer

    TPAs may be asked to administer a plan involving unrelated employers, which raises the concern that the arrangement could be an unapproved MEWA that is illegal under state law

    The course explains that MO-220 (Prevention of Illegal Multiple Employer Welfare Arrangements and Other Illegal Health Insurers Model Regulation) establishes specific standards for persons and licensees who become aware of or are asked to assist illegal MEWA operations. The HCAA comment specifically notes that TPAs will sometimes be asked to administer a plan involving unrelated employers, which raises a concern about whether such an arrangement is a MEWA, and an unapproved MEWA can be illegal under state law.

  9. 9

    Under the ACA, external review is required for many non-grandfathered health plans. Which two NAIC model acts does the course identify as important for TPAs in this context?

    • MO-32 (Health Carrier Claim Audit Guidelines Model Act) and MO-73 (Utilization Review and Benefit Determination Model Act)
    • MO-42 (Prohibition on the Use of Discretionary Clauses Model Act) and MO-75 (Health Carrier External Review Model Act)
    • MO-73 (Utilization Review and Benefit Determination Model Act) and MO-74 (Health Benefit Network Access and Adequacy Model Act)
    • MO-75 (Health Carrier External Review Model Act) and MO-76 (Uniform Health Carrier External Review Model Act)
    Show answer

    MO-75 (Health Carrier External Review Model Act) and MO-76 (Uniform Health Carrier External Review Model Act)

    The course identifies both MO-75 (Health Carrier External Review Model Act) and MO-76 (Uniform Health Carrier External Review Model Act) as important for TPAs. Both HCAA comments note that under the ACA, external review is required for many non-grandfathered health plans, including self-funded plans, making these laws important for TPAs.

  10. 10

    The NAIC model MO-887 (Model Regulation on Unfair Discrimination in Life and Health Insurance on the Basis of Physical or Mental Impairment) is described in the course. What is its stated main purpose?

    • To make clear that life and health insurers cannot classify individuals without a rational basis for each decision
    • To mandate that all actuarial classifications of physical or mental impairment be reviewed and approved by the state commissioner before use
    • To prohibit life and health insurers from declining any applicant on the basis of a preexisting physical or mental condition
    • To require life and health insurers to use community rating for all individuals regardless of health status
    Show answer

    To make clear that life and health insurers cannot classify individuals without a rational basis for each decision

    The course describes MO-887 as identifying specific acts or practices in life and health insurance that are prohibited by the NAIC Unfair Trade Practices Act (MDL-880). Its main purpose is to make clear that life and health insurers cannot classify individuals without a rational basis for each decision. This does not prohibit all classification — it requires a rational basis.

  11. 11

    Which NAIC model regulation implements the Standard Valuation Law, defines categories of reserves, and sets forth minimum claim, premium, and contract reserve requirements?

    • MO-10 (Health Insurance Reserves Model Regulation)
    • MO-100 (Group Health Insurance Standards Model Act)
    • MO-205 (Annual Financial Reporting Model Regulation)
    • MO-92 (Stop Loss Insurance Model Act)
    Show answer

    MO-10 (Health Insurance Reserves Model Regulation)

    The course identifies MO-10 (Health Insurance Reserves Model Regulation) as the model that implements the NAIC Standard Valuation Law (MDL-820), defines categories of reserves, and sets forth the minimum claim, premium, and contract reserve requirements. The regulation also provides for gross premium valuation to evaluate adequacy of reserves. The HCAA comment notes this is primarily for insurance companies, not TPAs.

  12. 12

    The course identifies several NAIC model acts (MO-78, MO-80, and MO-82) that all share a similar purpose. What common mechanism do these models provide, and how does the course categorize their relevance to TPAs?

    • All three create frameworks for regional risk pools to absorb high-cost claimants and are described as directly applicable to self-funded plan administration by TPAs
    • All three establish standards for coordinating benefits among multiple employer plans and are flagged as highly relevant for TPAs administering multi-employer arrangements
    • All three provide a mechanism for small employers to join together solely for the purpose of procuring health insurance as an exception to false group or fictitious group laws, and the course says they are primarily for health insurance issuers, not TPAs
    • All three regulate the formation of voluntary purchasing cooperatives for large employers and are identified as essential for TPAs managing consortium plans
    Show answer

    All three provide a mechanism for small employers to join together solely for the purpose of procuring health insurance as an exception to false group or fictitious group laws, and the course says they are primarily for health insurance issuers, not TPAs

    The course describes MO-78 (Single Health Care Voluntary Purchasing Alliance Model Act), MO-80 (Regional Health Care Voluntary Purchasing Alliance Model Act), and MO-82 (Private Health Care Voluntary Purchasing Alliance Model Act) as all sharing the purpose of improving fairness, efficiency, and competition in healthcare coverage for employers with no more than a specified number of employees. Each provides a mechanism for small employers to join together solely for procuring health insurance and operates as an exception to existing false group or fictitious group laws. All three are classified as primarily for health insurance issuers, not TPAs.

  13. 13

    The NAIC model MO-42 (Prohibition on the Use of Discretionary Clauses Model Act) addresses a specific conflict of interest. According to the course, what conflict does it aim to prevent?

    • The conflict that occurs when a broker who receives commissions from an insurer also advises the employer on plan design
    • The conflict that occurs when a TPA administers claims for a plan whose stop-loss carrier is an affiliate of the TPA
    • The conflict that occurs when an employer acts as both plan sponsor and plan administrator while making claims decisions
    • The conflict that occurs when the carrier responsible for providing benefits also has discretionary authority to decide what benefits are due
    Show answer

    The conflict that occurs when the carrier responsible for providing benefits also has discretionary authority to decide what benefits are due

    The course describes MO-42 as helping ensure that health insurance benefits and disability-income protection coverage are contractually guaranteed and helping avoid the conflict of interest that occurs when the carrier responsible for providing benefits has discretionary authority to decide what benefits are due.

  14. 14

    According to the course, the Pregnancy Discrimination Act of 1978 requires what with respect to employer health plans?

    • That all employer health plans cover maternity benefits regardless of plan size or funding status
    • That employers provide a minimum of 12 weeks of paid maternity leave to all full-time employees
    • That pregnancy and childbirth be treated as any other illness
    • That self-funded plans maintain separate maternity reserves certified by an enrolled actuary
    Show answer

    That pregnancy and childbirth be treated as any other illness

    The course states that the Pregnancy Discrimination Act of 1978 requires that pregnancy and childbirth be treated as any other illness. This is listed among the chronological federal statutes impacting self-funded group health plans.

  15. 15

    The course traces the evolution of the Medicare secondary payer ESRD coordination period through several federal statutes. Which of the following correctly identifies the full progression?

    • 12 months (Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1981), then 18 months (Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1990), then 30 months (Balanced Budget Act of 1997)
    • 12 months (Tax Equity and Fiscal Responsibility Act of 1982), then 18 months (COBRA 1985), then 30 months (Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1993)
    • 18 months (Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1981), then 24 months (Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1990), then 36 months (Balanced Budget Act of 1997)
    • 6 months (Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1981), then 12 months (Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1989), then 30 months (Taxpayer Relief Act of 1997)
    Show answer

    12 months (Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1981), then 18 months (Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1990), then 30 months (Balanced Budget Act of 1997)

    The course describes the ESRD coordination period progression: the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1981 established the employer health plan as primary to Medicare for the first 12 months after ESRD onset; the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1990 extended this from 12 to 18 months and redefined the coordination period; and the Balanced Budget Act of 1997 extended it further to 30 months.

  16. 16

    According to the course, the Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1985 introduced or changed three specific provisions. Which of the following correctly lists all three?

    • Introduced COBRA continuation, extended the ESRD coordination period to 18 months, and created penalties for noncompliance with Medicare secondary rules
    • Introduced COBRA continuation, made Medicare the secondary payer for all disabled individuals regardless of plan size, and established the $100 per day excise penalty
    • Introduced COBRA continuation, removed the age 70 cap in applying Medicare secondary rules, and made Medicare the secondary payer for disabled active individuals under large group plans
    • Introduced COBRA continuation, required plans to cover adopted children the same as birth children, and removed the age 70 cap in Medicare secondary rules
    Show answer

    Introduced COBRA continuation, removed the age 70 cap in applying Medicare secondary rules, and made Medicare the secondary payer for disabled active individuals under large group plans

    The course states that the Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1985 (1) introduced COBRA continuation, (2) removed the age 70 cap in applying Medicare secondary rules, and (3) made Medicare the secondary payer for disabled active individuals under large group plans.

  17. 17

    The Tax Equity and Fiscal Responsibility Act of 1982 imposed a specific requirement on employer health plans regarding older workers. What was that requirement, and what was the Medicare implication?

    • Employers with at least 100 employees had to extend benefits to persons ages 65-70 at the same contribution rate, and such persons could elect either Medicare or the employer plan as primary
    • Employers with at least 20 employees had to offer covered persons ages 65-70 the same benefits as younger workers, and such older covered persons would be secondary to Medicare
    • Employers with at least 20 employees had to offer Medicare-eligible retirees a supplemental wrap-around policy, and the employer plan was to be primary to Medicare
    • Employers with at least 50 employees had to offer covered persons ages 65 and over the same benefits as younger workers, and Medicare would be primary for all such persons
    Show answer

    Employers with at least 20 employees had to offer covered persons ages 65-70 the same benefits as younger workers, and such older covered persons would be secondary to Medicare

    The course states that the Tax Equity and Fiscal Responsibility Act of 1982 required that employers with at least 20 employees offer covered persons (ages 65-70) the same benefits as to younger workers. Such older covered persons would be secondary to Medicare.

  18. 18

    According to the course, the Taxpayer Relief Act of 1997 amended ERISA in what specific way relating to plan administration?

    • It created a safe harbor for electronic disclosure of plan documents but only for employers with more than 500 employees
    • It eliminated the requirement that employers distribute summary plan descriptions and summaries of materials to employees, and required the federal government to issue rules to expand paperless administration of benefits
    • It extended COBRA continuation periods for disabled beneficiaries from 18 months to 29 months and required electronic notification of COBRA rights
    • It mandated that all self-funded plans file annual reports electronically with the Department of Labor and eliminated paper Form 5500 filings
    Show answer

    It eliminated the requirement that employers distribute summary plan descriptions and summaries of materials to employees, and required the federal government to issue rules to expand paperless administration of benefits

    The course states that the Taxpayer Relief Act of 1997 amended ERISA to eliminate the requirement that employers distribute summary plan descriptions and summaries of materials to employees (i.e., potential plan beneficiaries). Also, the federal government must issue rules to expand paperless administration of benefits.

  19. 19

    The course identifies several significant HIPAA regulations. Which of the following is NOT listed among the specific regulations discussed?

    • Final regulations establishing minimum network adequacy standards for all group health plans
    • Final rules and regulations for the administration and enforcement of HIPAA, including claims procedures
    • Healthcare integrity and protection data bank to combat fraud and abuse regulations
    • Interim final rules for nondiscrimination in health coverage in the group market
    Show answer

    Final regulations establishing minimum network adequacy standards for all group health plans

    The course lists these significant HIPAA regulations: final rules for administration and enforcement including claims procedures; healthcare integrity and protection data bank to combat fraud and abuse; final rules for health insurance portability and renewability; interim regulations for state and local government plans; interim final rules for nondiscrimination in health coverage in the group market; and electronic data interchange standards. Minimum network adequacy standards are not listed.

  20. 20

    The course states that the Mental Health Parity Act of 1996 was later expanded and renamed. What was the expanded name and what additional requirement did the expansion include?

    • It was renamed the Behavioral Health Equity Act, which required coverage of all mental health conditions at the same copay level as medical and surgical benefits
    • It was renamed the Mental Health Parity and Addiction Equity Act (MHPAEA), which eliminated all annual and lifetime maximums for both mental health and medical benefits
    • It was renamed the Mental Health Parity and Addiction Equity Act (MHPAEA), which expanded mental health parity requirements and required parity with respect to substance use disorder benefits
    • It was renamed the Mental Health Parity and Coverage Act, which mandated that all employer plans provide a minimum of 30 inpatient mental health days annually
    Show answer

    It was renamed the Mental Health Parity and Addiction Equity Act (MHPAEA), which expanded mental health parity requirements and required parity with respect to substance use disorder benefits

    The course states that the Mental Health Parity Act of 1996 said special annual and lifetime maximums could not be applied exclusively to mental health conditions. It was expanded in a later modification and renamed the Mental Health Parity and Addiction Equity Act (MHPAEA). The modification expanded the mental health parity requirements and required parity with respect to substance use disorder benefits.

  21. 21

    Under the ADA, insurance providers — including employers as self-funders — are specifically permitted to engage in certain activities, subject to a critical limitation. What is that limitation?

    • They may apply different deductibles based on disability status if the differential is actuarially justified, but only if the plan is fully insured rather than self-funded
    • They may classify and underwrite according to state laws or provide benefit plans with risk classifications, but only as long as these practices are not used to circumvent the purposes of the ADA
    • They may exclude specific disabilities from coverage if approved by the state insurance commissioner, but only for plans with fewer than 50 participants
    • They may impose waiting periods for disabled participants if recommended by an enrolled actuary, but only for a maximum of 12 months
    Show answer

    They may classify and underwrite according to state laws or provide benefit plans with risk classifications, but only as long as these practices are not used to circumvent the purposes of the ADA

    The course states that the ADA specifically permits insurance providers (including employers as self-funders) to classify and underwrite according to state laws or to provide benefit plans with risk classifications. These important caveats are available only as long as they are not used to circumvent the purposes of the act.

  22. 22

    According to the course, the Supreme Court defined the term 'subterfuge' under the ADA by referring to its dictionary meaning. What definition did the justices adopt?

    • A deliberate and intentional act designed to defraud a protected class of persons
    • A knowing violation of a specific provision of the ADA with the purpose of denying benefits
    • A scheme, a plan, stratagem, or artifice of evasion
    • Any employment practice that has a disparate impact on individuals with disabilities, regardless of intent
    Show answer

    A scheme, a plan, stratagem, or artifice of evasion

    The course states that in the relevant Supreme Court decisions, the Court took the word subterfuge at its dictionary meaning, which the justices believed meant a scheme, a plan, stratagem, or artifice of evasion. The course also notes that a plan is not shielded from ADA merely because the plan or its rules were in place prior to the passage of the act.

  23. 23

    Based on the course's review of case law as applied to the ADA, which two conclusions does the course identify as reasonably supportable, while noting they are by no means assured?

    • Disability-based surcharges are acceptable without actuarial support if adopted before the ADA's effective date, and exclusionary amendments need only be approved by the plan fiduciary
    • Limiting exclusionary amendments are acceptable if there is a provable economic necessity, and offering full coverage at contributory surcharges to the handicapped/disabled would be acceptable if there is an actuarial basis
    • Plans may impose unlimited preexisting condition exclusions on disabled participants, and employers may require disabled persons to waive ADA protections as a condition of enrollment
    • Plans must offer identical benefits to disabled and non-disabled participants at all times, and any surcharge or exclusion related to disability automatically constitutes a subterfuge
    Show answer

    Limiting exclusionary amendments are acceptable if there is a provable economic necessity, and offering full coverage at contributory surcharges to the handicapped/disabled would be acceptable if there is an actuarial basis

    The course states two conclusions that may reasonably be reached from case law: (1) limiting exclusionary amendments are acceptable if there is a provable economic necessity, and (2) offering full coverage but at contributory surcharges to the handicapped/disabled would be acceptable if there is an actuarial basis. However, the course cautions these conclusions are by no means assured and some observers believe any scheme of risk-classifying disabled participants is necessarily a subterfuge to ADA.

  24. 24

    The course discusses the McCarran-Ferguson Act in the context of ADA. In the case where an insurer rated up a Native American for automobile coverage solely because of race, what happened when the insurer cited the McCarran-Ferguson Act?

    • The court dismissed the case on procedural grounds before ruling on the McCarran-Ferguson Act defense
    • The court held that the McCarran-Ferguson Act applied but awarded damages to the Native American under a separate state anti-discrimination statute
    • The court upheld the insurer's defense because the McCarran-Ferguson Act grants insurers immunity from federal discrimination claims when acting under state insurance law
    • The insurer attempted, without success, to block the Native American's discrimination claim by citing the McCarran-Ferguson Act
    Show answer

    The insurer attempted, without success, to block the Native American's discrimination claim by citing the McCarran-Ferguson Act

    The course describes a case where an insurer rated up a Native American for automobile coverage solely because of his race. The aggrieved sought relief in federal court, and the insurer attempted, without success, to block the Native American's claim to discrimination by citing the McCarran-Ferguson Act.

  25. 25

    In the context of sex-differentiated insurance practices, the course discusses cases where the McCarran-Ferguson Act was raised as a defense. In both the annuity table case and the life expectancy table case, what did the courts hold?

    • Both cases were dismissed because the McCarran-Ferguson Act was held to shield state-approved actuarial practices from federal review
    • In both cases, the courts held that the aggrieved person's complaint could be heard in federal court, McCarran-Ferguson Act notwithstanding
    • In both cases, the courts held that the McCarran-Ferguson Act required the cases to be adjudicated in state court under state insurance law
    • The annuity table case was heard in federal court, but the life expectancy table case was dismissed based on the McCarran-Ferguson Act
    Show answer

    In both cases, the courts held that the aggrieved person's complaint could be heard in federal court, McCarran-Ferguson Act notwithstanding

    The course describes two cases: in one, a female sought relief when a plan used a sex-differentiated annuity table giving her fewer benefits, and the court held her complaint could be heard in federal court, McCarran-Ferguson Act notwithstanding. A similar decision was reached with comparable logic where the practice at issue was a life expectancy table rather than an annuity table.

  26. 26

    The course discusses a self-funded plan that charges surcharges for habits (such as smoking) or physical conditions, whether or not disabling. Under what conditions does the course suggest a disabled employee's subterfuge complaint should NOT prevail?

    • When the disabled employee was offered an alternative plan without surcharges at the time of enrollment, regardless of whether the surcharge plan has actuarial support
    • When the plan can demonstrate the employee was not singled out, surcharges have actuarial and underwriting justification, are nondiscriminatory as to all covered persons, serve explainable business purposes, and involve no age, sex, or race discrimination
    • When the surcharges affect fewer than 10% of plan participants and the plan has fewer than 500 covered lives
    • When the surcharges were adopted before the ADA was enacted and have been applied consistently, regardless of actuarial justification
    Show answer

    When the plan can demonstrate the employee was not singled out, surcharges have actuarial and underwriting justification, are nondiscriminatory as to all covered persons, serve explainable business purposes, and involve no age, sex, or race discrimination

    The course presents a scenario where Employee A, who is disabled, argues that a surcharge for habits or physical conditions is a subterfuge. The course states A's complaint should not prevail, assuming the plan demonstrates: (1) actuarial and underwriting justification for the surcharge, (2) surcharges were nondiscriminatory as regards all covered persons, (3) explainable business purposes for the plan's substandard surcharges, and (4) no age, sex, race, etc., discrimination.

  27. 27

    In the case involving a court's review of riduring out hospital mental health care from a group plan, what reasoning did the court use to find the practice acceptable despite its obvious discrimination against the disabled?

    • The court reasoned that economic necessity was the motivating reason behind the exclusionary amendment
    • The court reasoned that mental health care was not a covered benefit under the ADA and therefore the exclusion was outside the scope of the statute
    • The court reasoned that the exclusion applied equally to disabled and non-disabled participants and therefore was not discriminatory
    • The court reasoned that the plan was grandfathered under pre-ADA law and therefore immune from ADA challenge
    Show answer

    The court reasoned that economic necessity was the motivating reason behind the exclusionary amendment

    The course states that the court held it acceptable to rider out hospital mental health care from group plans, even though it obviously discriminated against the disabled. The court reasoned that economic necessity was the motivating reason behind the exclusionary amendment.

  28. 28

    According to the course, when a self-funding employer becomes bankrupt, what is the status of participants' rights to unpaid benefits?

    • They are guaranteed by the Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation up to statutory limits
    • They are nothing more than rights as general creditors, and generally do not receive any priority with the rights of the preferred creditors
    • They are treated as secured claims because participant contributions create a trust fund obligation
    • They receive first-priority treatment as administrative expenses of the bankruptcy estate
    Show answer

    They are nothing more than rights as general creditors, and generally do not receive any priority with the rights of the preferred creditors

    The course states that when a self-funding employer becomes bankrupt, rights of participants to unpaid benefits are nothing more than rights as general creditors. It is generally the case that such rights do not receive any priority with the rights of the preferred creditors.

  29. 29

    The course explains that an employee benefit trust is generally not eligible for bankruptcy relief. What is the legal reasoning?

    • ERISA expressly prohibits employee benefit trusts from filing for bankruptcy because they must be maintained as separate, inviolate funds
    • The bankruptcy code applies only to entities with revenue-generating operations, and employee benefit trusts are classified as passive investment vehicles
    • The bankruptcy code defines 'corporation' to include a business trust, but courts have generally established that an employee benefit trust is not a business trust, so no bankruptcy relief is available
    • The Department of Labor issued a regulation classifying employee benefit trusts as governmental entities, which are excluded from bankruptcy eligibility
    Show answer

    The bankruptcy code defines 'corporation' to include a business trust, but courts have generally established that an employee benefit trust is not a business trust, so no bankruptcy relief is available

    The course explains that the bankruptcy laws are sufficiently broad to permit persons (individuals, partnerships, corporations) to file. Corporation is defined to include a business trust. However, it has been generally established by court decisions covering bankruptcy that an employee benefit trust is not a business trust. Therefore, no bankruptcy relief is possible for a bankrupt MEWA, for example.

  30. 30

    Under the bankruptcy code's priority scheme described in the course, unsecured claims to an employee benefit plan hold what position relative to workers' wages?

    • They are above workers' wages in priority because ERISA fiduciary standards require plan funding before wage payments
    • They are below all other unsecured creditors because employee benefits are deemed non-vested obligations
    • They are below workers' wages in priority but above other priority claims of some creditors
    • They rank equally with workers' wages and are paid on a pro rata basis
    Show answer

    They are below workers' wages in priority but above other priority claims of some creditors

    The course states that unsecured claims to an employee benefit plan are below workers' wages in priority but above other priority claims of some creditors. The bankruptcy code limits the amount of prioritized claims to those incurred within the last six months and not in excess of $2,000 per participant.

  31. 31

    The course describes how bankruptcy law impacts employee benefits in several specific ways. Which of the following correctly identifies how group-invoiced premiums and retiree benefits are treated?

    • Retiree benefits are guaranteed by ERISA's fiduciary obligation provisions, and group-invoiced premiums are automatically stayed and cannot be paid during proceedings
    • Retiree benefits are paid only from the surplus remaining after all administrative expenses, and group-invoiced premiums are classified as unsecured claims of the lowest priority
    • Retiree benefits are treated as executory contracts that may be rejected, and group-invoiced premiums are subordinated to all secured claims
    • Retiree life, health, and disability benefits are required to be paid as administrative expenses during bankruptcy proceedings, and trustees may deem group-invoiced premiums to be necessary business expenses paid as general operating expenses
    Show answer

    Retiree life, health, and disability benefits are required to be paid as administrative expenses during bankruptcy proceedings, and trustees may deem group-invoiced premiums to be necessary business expenses paid as general operating expenses

    The course states that bankruptcy laws impact employee benefits in specific ways: (1) the life, health, and disability benefits of retirees are required to be paid by the trustees in bankruptcy as administrative expenses during bankruptcy proceedings, and (2) trustees in bankruptcy may deem group-invoiced premiums to be necessary business expenses and pay them as general operating expenses.

  32. 32

    The course describes a timing scenario relevant to bankruptcy proceedings. If an employer shuts down at time t and files for bankruptcy at time t+8 months, with claims presented for services incurred prior to t, what favorable rule applies and why?

    • All claims incurred prior to shutdown are automatically elevated to secured status, because the bankruptcy code treats pre-shutdown obligations as implied liens
    • Claims older than 90 days are discharged without payment, because the bankruptcy code imposes a strict filing deadline for employee benefit claims
    • Only claims incurred within the final 30 days before shutdown receive priority, because the code prioritizes the most recent obligations to minimize moral hazard
    • Unsecured claims over 180 days old would have a chance for priority, because this rule is designed to encourage employees to stay with a failing company in hopes of saving it
    Show answer

    Unsecured claims over 180 days old would have a chance for priority, because this rule is designed to encourage employees to stay with a failing company in hopes of saving it

    The course presents a timing scenario where the employer shuts down at time t, files for bankruptcy at t+8 months, and claims are for services incurred prior to t. In this instance, unsecured claims over 180 days old would have a chance for priority. The purpose of this rule is to encourage the employees to stay with a failing company in hopes of saving it.

  33. 33

    According to the course, what is the relationship between ERISA and the federal bankruptcy code?

    • ERISA and the bankruptcy code operate as co-equal statutes, with conflicts resolved by the Department of Labor
    • ERISA does not preempt federal bankruptcy code
    • ERISA preempts the bankruptcy code only for plans with more than 100 participants
    • ERISA preempts the bankruptcy code with respect to all employee benefit plan claims
    Show answer

    ERISA does not preempt federal bankruptcy code

    The course explicitly states that ERISA does not preempt federal bankruptcy code. This is a straightforward but important principle in the intersection of employee benefits law and bankruptcy law.

  34. 34

    The course identifies two practical problems a TPA should bear in mind when supervising a healthcare plan in the context of potential employer bankruptcy. What are the two problems and their recommended responses?

    • Employers who commingle plan assets with general operating funds (TPA should create a separate VEBA trust); and employers who fail to pay stop-loss premiums (TPA should advance the premiums to maintain coverage)
    • Employers who refuse to file Form 5500 annual reports (TPA should file on the employer's behalf); and employers who reduce benefits without proper SPD amendment (TPA should notify participants directly)
    • Employers who understate their participant count to avoid COBRA obligations (TPA should report to the DOL); and employers who fail to maintain fidelity bonds (TPA should purchase the bond and charge the employer)
    • Wrongly motivated employers attracted to self-funding to capture insurer reserves, gain float advantage, and delay claims funding (TPA should avoid or terminate such plans); and the need to shut the plan down as soon as practicable when the employer experiences financial difficulties (TPA should resign if employer is unwilling)
    Show answer

    Wrongly motivated employers attracted to self-funding to capture insurer reserves, gain float advantage, and delay claims funding (TPA should avoid or terminate such plans); and the need to shut the plan down as soon as practicable when the employer experiences financial difficulties (TPA should resign if employer is unwilling)

    The course identifies two practical concerns: (1) wrongly motivated employers attracted to self-funding for the wrong reason — to capture insurer reserves, gain float advantage with participant contributions, and delay claims funding — and the TPA should avoid or terminate such plans because under co-fiduciary obligation rules, the TPA may be expected to pay claims; (2) when financial difficulties become apparent, the plan should be shut down as soon as practicable, and if the employer is unwilling, the TPA should resign.

  35. 35

    The course describes the process a bankruptcy trustee must follow before repudiating or modifying a collective bargaining agreement. Which of the following correctly lists all required steps?

    • A formal proposal approved by a majority vote of current employees, review by an independent actuary, a court hearing limited to the adequacy of proposed replacement benefits, and written consent from the plan trustee
    • A formal proposal to the union and court with hearings, changes limited only to what is needed to rehabilitate, all parties must be fairly treated, and the union has the right to petition for rejection of the proposal
    • Filing a motion with the bankruptcy court, obtaining agreement from the seven-member creditors' committee, providing 90 days' notice to the PBGC, and demonstrating that the changes will not reduce retiree benefits
    • Written notice to all participants 60 days in advance, court approval based on a showing of insolvency, a vote by the creditors' committee, and DOL certification that ERISA fiduciary duties have been met
    Show answer

    A formal proposal to the union and court with hearings, changes limited only to what is needed to rehabilitate, all parties must be fairly treated, and the union has the right to petition for rejection of the proposal

    The course states that when a bankruptcy trustee seeks to repudiate or modify a collective bargaining agreement, the law requires several steps: (1) a formal proposal to the union and court with hearings, (2) changes must be only for what is needed to rehabilitate, (3) all parties must be fairly treated, and (4) the union has the right to petition for rejection of the proposal.

  36. 36

    An employer fails to comply with COBRA notification requirements. The daily excise penalty for noncompliance involving a family is which of the following?

    • $100 per day, the same rate as for an individual
    • $110 per day, matching the ERISA failure-to-report penalty
    • $200 per day for a family
    • $400 per day, double the individual rate per covered family member
    Show answer

    $200 per day for a family

    The course specifies a daily sanction of $100 per day for an individual and $200 per day for a family. The $110 per day figure is the separate ERISA failure-to-report penalty, not the excise penalty.

  37. 37

    Under COBRA penalty provisions, the maximum liability for noncompliance is capped at a specific threshold. Which of the following correctly states both the cap and the continuing-failure penalty structure?

    • Maximum liability is capped at $500,000 regardless of plan size; continuing failure adds $1,000 for infractions and $10,000 for major infractions on top of the daily sanction
    • Maximum liability is the lesser of 10% of plan benefit or $250,000; continuing failure adds $2,500 for infractions and $15,000 for major infractions with no daily sanction
    • Maximum liability is the lesser of 10% of plan benefit or $500,000; continuing failure adds $2,500 for infractions and $15,000 for major infractions (or the excise tax, if lesser) on top of the daily sanction
    • Maximum liability is the lesser of 15% of plan benefit or $500,000; continuing failure adds $5,000 for infractions and $25,000 for major infractions on top of the daily sanction
    Show answer

    Maximum liability is the lesser of 10% of plan benefit or $500,000; continuing failure adds $2,500 for infractions and $15,000 for major infractions (or the excise tax, if lesser) on top of the daily sanction

    The course states the maximum liability is the lesser of 10% of plan benefit or $500,000. The continuing failure penalty is $2,500 for infractions and $15,000 for major infractions, or the excise tax if lesser, and this is in addition to the daily sanction of $100/$200 per day.

  38. 38

    A MEWA with three employers offers both a high-option and a low-option plan. For COBRA purposes, how many separate plans exist, and what principle drives this determination?

    • One plan, because the MEWA has traditionally reported itself as a single plan entity on Form 5500
    • Six plans, because each different option for each employer constitutes a separate plan for purposes of the separate electability mandated by COBRA
    • Three plans, because the employer—not the option level—is the unit of COBRA analysis
    • Two plans, because high-option and low-option are the only relevant distinctions regardless of how many employers participate
    Show answer

    Six plans, because each different option for each employer constitutes a separate plan for purposes of the separate electability mandated by COBRA

    The course states that a MEWA with three employers and a high- and low-option plan results in six plans for COBRA purposes. The fact that the MEWA reports as a single entity on Form 5500 is not controlling. Each different option is a plan because of COBRA's separate electability mandate.

  39. 39

    Which of the following statements about COBRA and cafeteria plans is correct?

    • A cafeteria plan and all benefits offered under it, including dependent care, are fully subject to COBRA
    • A cafeteria plan is subject to COBRA only if the employer contributes more than 50% of the plan cost
    • A cafeteria plan itself is not subject to COBRA, but a Health FSA offered under it is subject to COBRA; dependent care offered under a cafeteria plan is not subject to COBRA
    • Neither a cafeteria plan nor any of its component benefits, including Health FSAs, are subject to COBRA
    Show answer

    A cafeteria plan itself is not subject to COBRA, but a Health FSA offered under it is subject to COBRA; dependent care offered under a cafeteria plan is not subject to COBRA

    The course states that a cafeteria or flex plan is not, by itself, subject to COBRA. However, a Health FSA offered under a cafeteria plan is subject to COBRA. Other benefits may or may not be subject; for example, dependent care is specifically not subject to COBRA.

  40. 40

    Under DOL Advisory Opinion 91-26A, an employee assistance program (EAP) was held not to be a COBRA benefit. What specific characteristics of that EAP led to this conclusion?

    • The EAP benefits were essentially hotlines and referrals in which the EAP agency did no consultative work with trained counselors, either at home or on a contractual basis
    • The EAP provided only substance abuse treatment, which the course excludes from COBRA's definition of medical care
    • The EAP was administered by an outside vendor rather than the employer's own medical staff
    • The EAP was funded entirely by employee contributions with no employer subsidy
    Show answer

    The EAP benefits were essentially hotlines and referrals in which the EAP agency did no consultative work with trained counselors, either at home or on a contractual basis

    Advisory Opinion 91-26A found that the EAP was not a COBRA benefit because its services were limited to hotlines and referrals, with no consultative work performed by trained counselors at home or on a contractual basis. Compare Advisory Opinion 88-04A, which ruled many EAPs were COBRA benefits.

  41. 41

    An employer-provided on-site clinic is exempt from being considered a group health plan for COBRA purposes under which specific combination of conditions?

    • It is located on the employer's premises, costs less than $5,000 annually to operate, and does not file insurance claims
    • It is primarily first aid in nature, is limited to present (and not former) employees, and is free to the employees
    • It is staffed by licensed physicians, provides care to both employees and dependents, and charges nominal copays
    • It provides preventive care only, is open to former employees for up to 12 months post-termination, and is employer-funded
    Show answer

    It is primarily first aid in nature, is limited to present (and not former) employees, and is free to the employees

    The course states that employer-provided on-site clinic care is not a plan if it is primarily first aid in nature, is limited to present (and not former) employees, and is free to the employees. All three conditions must be met.

  42. 42

    Employee-pay-all plans and so-called franchise programs are treated differently for COBRA purposes. Which of the following correctly distinguishes the two?

    • Both employee-pay-all plans and franchise programs are subject to COBRA regardless of employer contribution levels
    • Employee-pay-all plans are not considered plans for COBRA purposes, while franchise programs are considered a plan only if there is at least some employer contribution
    • Employee-pay-all plans are subject to COBRA if enrollment exceeds 20, while franchise programs are always exempt
    • Franchise programs are never subject to COBRA, whereas employee-pay-all plans are subject when included in a cafeteria arrangement
    Show answer

    Employee-pay-all plans are not considered plans for COBRA purposes, while franchise programs are considered a plan only if there is at least some employer contribution

    The course states that employee-pay-all plans are not plans for COBRA purposes. Franchise programs are considered to be a plan, but only if there is at least some employer contribution. This distinction turns entirely on whether the employer contributes.

  43. 43

    A person's status as a covered employee is attributable to a period as a nonresident alien with no earned income from the employer within the United States. What is the COBRA consequence for this person and their dependents?

    • Both the person and dependents are eligible for COBRA, but only for the 18-month continuation period
    • The person is not eligible for COBRA, and this failure also precludes any of the person's dependents from being afforded coverage
    • The person is not eligible for COBRA, but the person's dependents retain independent COBRA eligibility
    • The person may elect COBRA only for domestic medical coverage, while dependents are fully excluded
    Show answer

    The person is not eligible for COBRA, and this failure also precludes any of the person's dependents from being afforded coverage

    The course states that if a covered employee's status is attributable to a period as a nonresident alien with no earned US income, that person is not eligible for COBRA. Furthermore, such failure precludes any of this person's dependents from being afforded coverage as well.

  44. 44

    Which of the following persons may be a covered employee for COBRA purposes, even though they may not be a traditional W-2 employee?

    • Only agents and independent contractors whose contracts exceed 12 months in duration
    • Only partners and corporate directors, but not independent contractors
    • Partners, agents and independent contractors, and corporate directors
    • Seasonal workers, volunteers, and sole proprietors
    Show answer

    Partners, agents and independent contractors, and corporate directors

    The course lists partners, agents and independent contractors, and corporate directors as persons who may also be covered employees for COBRA purposes. For these non-employees, the term 'termination of employment' is replaced with 'termination of relationship.'

  45. 45

    John is a COBRA participant. During his continuation coverage period, he marries and adds his new wife as a dependent. He also has a child born during the COBRA period. Which statement correctly describes the qualified beneficiary status of the new wife and the child?

    • Both the new wife and the child are qualified beneficiaries with full rights to second qualifying events
    • Neither the new wife nor the child is a qualified beneficiary because they were not covered on the day prior to the original qualifying event
    • The new wife is a qualified beneficiary because she was added under an open enrollment, while the child is not until the child reaches age one
    • The newly acquired wife is not a qualified beneficiary, but the child born during COBRA continuation is a qualified beneficiary with rights to second qualifying events
    Show answer

    The newly acquired wife is not a qualified beneficiary, but the child born during COBRA continuation is a qualified beneficiary with rights to second qualifying events

    The course states that John can add a newly acquired wife while he is a COBRA, but the newly acquired wife is not a qualified beneficiary. However, dependent children added under COBRA (including those born to or placed for adoption with the covered employee during continuation coverage) do become qualified beneficiaries with the right to second qualifying events.

  46. 46

    A domestic partner is covered under a group health plan. Upon a qualifying event, what are the domestic partner's COBRA rights?

    • The domestic partner has COBRA rights only in states that mandate domestic partner coverage
    • The domestic partner is a qualified beneficiary for up to 18 months but not eligible for the 36-month extension
    • The domestic partner is a qualified beneficiary if formally recognized under the plan document as an eligible dependent
    • The domestic partner is not a qualified beneficiary regardless of coverage under the plan, though some sponsors voluntarily provide COBRA-like rights
    Show answer

    The domestic partner is not a qualified beneficiary regardless of coverage under the plan, though some sponsors voluntarily provide COBRA-like rights

    The course states that a domestic partner will not be a qualified beneficiary, regardless of whether the partner is covered under the plan. Some plan sponsors will choose, voluntarily, to provide COBRA-like rights to domestic partners, but this is not required by law.

  47. 47

    Which of the following is NOT listed in the course as a qualifying event under COBRA?

    • Change of the plan's insurance carrier
    • Dependent child ceasing to be a dependent
    • Employee's entitlement to Medicare
    • Employer's filing under Chapter 11 bankruptcy
    Show answer

    Change of the plan's insurance carrier

    The course lists the following qualifying events: employee's death, employment termination, reduction in hours, divorce or legal separation, employee's entitlement to Medicare, dependent child ceasing to be a dependent, and employer's filing under Chapter 11 bankruptcy. A change of insurers is explicitly stated to not be a qualifying event.

  48. 48

    For a COBRA qualifying event to be valid, two elements must be present and a timing constraint must be met. Which of the following correctly states all three requirements?

    • The event itself must occur, it must result in a loss of coverage, and it must occur while the plan is subject to COBRA
    • The event must be involuntary, it must result in complete termination of coverage, and the plan must be ERISA-governed
    • The event must occur, the participant must be notified within 30 days, and the plan must have at least 20 employees at the time of the event
    • The event must result in a loss of coverage, the participant must elect within 60 days, and the employer must be current on stop-loss premiums
    Show answer

    The event itself must occur, it must result in a loss of coverage, and it must occur while the plan is subject to COBRA

    The course states that to be a qualifying event, the event must result in a loss of coverage, and a qualifying event must occur while the plan is subject to COBRA. Additionally, a COBRA-qualifying event may not occur prior to the date of COBRA eligibility or while the plan is COBRA exempt for any reason.

  49. 49

    Regarding Medicaid and COBRA, the Medicaid Act requires states to mandate that individuals assign their rights to medical support to the state and cooperate in obtaining third-party payments. However, what limitation does the course identify on this requirement as it relates to COBRA?

    • Medicaid recipients must elect COBRA continuation coverage before becoming eligible for Medicaid benefits
    • States may require Medicaid applicants to exhaust their full COBRA continuation period before Medicaid eligibility begins
    • The state may assume the COBRA participant's election rights and elect on the participant's behalf
    • There is no requirement that applicants or beneficiaries purchase third-party coverage available to them, whether it is COBRA continuation coverage or insurance available by any other means
    Show answer

    There is no requirement that applicants or beneficiaries purchase third-party coverage available to them, whether it is COBRA continuation coverage or insurance available by any other means

    The course states that while the Medicaid Act requires assignment of medical support rights to the state, there is no requirement that applicants or beneficiaries purchase third-party coverage that is available to them, whether it is COBRA continuation or other insurance.

  50. 50

    Which of the following correctly describes the 'similarly situated' rule under COBRA continuation coverage?

    • COBRA participants are entitled to enhanced benefits because their coverage is participant-funded
    • COBRA participants are full-plan citizens who are neither better off nor worse off than active counterparts; benefit increases or decreases to actives similarly apply to COBRAs
    • COBRA participants may receive reduced benefits compared to actives so long as the premium remains at 102%
    • COBRA participants must be offered the same benefits as at the time of their qualifying event, regardless of plan changes made afterward
    Show answer

    COBRA participants are full-plan citizens who are neither better off nor worse off than active counterparts; benefit increases or decreases to actives similarly apply to COBRAs

    The course states that COBRA's participants are full-plan citizens, neither better off nor worse off than their active counterparts. Benefits increased or decreased to the active participants will similarly increase or decrease the benefits of the COBRA participants.

CSFS is the Certified Self-Funding Specialist designation. These are my own practice questions, written while studying for the exam. This site is not affiliated with, endorsed by, or connected to the organisation that administers the CSFS designation, and nothing here is official exam content or a substitute for the course material.

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