CSFS Course 5
Actuarial, Legal, Reporting and Disclosure
Setting rates and attachment points, the actuarial basis behind them, and the reporting and disclosure obligations a plan sponsor carries — including the documents that prove the plan exists.
315 practice questions · page 1 of 7, questions 1–50 · answers and explanations included · updated September 2026
50 questions on this page 1 of 7, each with the answer and the reasoning behind it. Read straight through, or quiz yourself on them and the ones you miss stay in rotation until you get them right.
- 1
According to the course, self-funding financial outcomes will vary from year to year due to three factors. Which of the following correctly identifies all three?
- •Census changes, stop-loss pricing, and managed care adoption
- •Inflation, regulatory changes, and benefit design modifications
- •Investment returns, claims processing delays, and plan amendments
- •Judgment errors, secular trends, and random or statistical fluctuations
Show answer
Judgment errors, secular trends, and random or statistical fluctuations
The course states that the actuary's role is to present facts, and those facts are that self-funding financial outcomes vary due to (1) judgment errors, (2) secular trends, and (3) random or statistical fluctuations.
- 2
The course draws an analogy between a proposed qualified health actuary designation and an existing designation in another actuarial field. Which existing designation serves as the model, and what body administers it?
- •The Associate of the Casualty Actuarial Society designation, administered by the CAS Admissions Committee
- •The Certified Actuarial Analyst designation, administered by the Institute and Faculty of Actuaries
- •The enrolled pension actuary designation, administered by the Joint Board of the Enrollment of Enrolled Actuaries
- •The Fellow of the Society of Actuaries designation, administered by the Society of Actuaries Board of Governors
Show answer
The enrolled pension actuary designation, administered by the Joint Board of the Enrollment of Enrolled Actuaries
The course suggests a qualified health actuary designation comparable to the enrolled pension actuary. The Joint Board of the Enrollment of Enrolled Actuaries features a testing and qualifying process that has been useful in minimizing abuses in pensions, and similar results may be expected with health actuaries.
- 3
The course identifies the original AICPA position on FAS 5 contingent liability for GAAP general asset self-funders and notes it was later reversed. What is the current position?
- •Claim reserves are now actuarially determined at the accountant's request and shown as a liability on the balance sheet for a large percentage of general asset plans
- •Claim reserves are recognized only when the plan has stop-loss coverage that triggers aggregate reimbursement
- •Claim reserves remain excluded from GAAP balance sheets but must be disclosed in footnotes for all general asset plans
- •Only plans exceeding 500 participants must reflect actuarially determined claim reserves on the balance sheet
Show answer
Claim reserves are now actuarially determined at the accountant's request and shown as a liability on the balance sheet for a large percentage of general asset plans
The course states that the original AICPA position was that a GAAP general asset self-funder did not have a FAS 5 contingent liability for claim reserves on its balance sheet. This position was reversed, and now such claim reserves are actuarially determined at the accountant's request for a large percentage of general asset plans.
- 4
Which of the following is NOT listed as a way actuarial services are arranged for self-funded plans?
- •Directly to MEWA, trusteed (or Taft-Hartley) plans, or to the VEBA trustees
- •Directly to the employer and plan
- •Indirectly through the plan supervisor and increasingly the risk manager or consultant
- •Through the state insurance department as a regulatory requirement of plan licensing
Show answer
Through the state insurance department as a regulatory requirement of plan licensing
The course lists four ways actuarial services are arranged: (1) directly to employer and plan, (2) indirectly through the plan supervisor/risk manager/consultant, (3) indirectly through the managing underwriter (intermediary or MGA), and (4) directly to MEWA, trusteed, or VEBA plans. State insurance departments are not listed as an arrangement channel.
- 5
The course states that the goal of the proposed enrolled health actuary designation goes beyond mathematical accuracy. What additional objective does it serve?
- •To create a federal licensing barrier that limits the number of practicing health actuaries
- •To ensure that only actuaries with pension experience may certify healthcare plan reserves
- •To have a device to obtain credible and honest work products for health practitioners
- •To provide a revenue stream for actuarial professional bodies through examination fees
Show answer
To have a device to obtain credible and honest work products for health practitioners
The course states the goal of the enrolled actuary designation is 'to not only have good mathematicians do accurate work, but also to have a device to obtain credible and honest work products for the health practitioners.' The emphasis is on credibility and honesty, not just technical skill.
- 6
Under ASO arrangements, who normally provides actuarial services for the self-funded plan?
- •A staff actuary employed by the state insurance department
- •An independent consulting actuary retained by the plan supervisor
- •The employer's retirement plan consulting actuary
- •The insurer's actuary
Show answer
The insurer's actuary
The course states that where the self-funded plan is ASO-administered, the insurer's actuary will normally provide the needed actuarial services.
- 7
According to the course, the role of the actuary with self-funded healthcare plans should be characterized as which of the following?
- •As a conservative estimator who adds margins to protect against regulatory challenges
- •As a neutral mediator between the plan supervisor and the stop-loss carrier
- •As an advocate for the plan sponsor's financial interests in all regulatory matters
- •Only as a presenter of the facts, neither promotional nor adversarial
Show answer
Only as a presenter of the facts, neither promotional nor adversarial
The course explicitly states that the role of the actuary should not be promotional or adversarial; rather, it should be only as a presenter of the facts.
- 8
The course specifies that any actuarial determination must be experiential. When no experience is available, what is required?
- •Industry-standard tables must be substituted without further disclosure
- •The actuary must apply a minimum 20% margin of conservatism to all projections
- •The actuary must decline the engagement until at least 12 months of experience data is available
- •The assumptions used to make the projection must be clearly disclosed
Show answer
The assumptions used to make the projection must be clearly disclosed
The course states that any actuarial determination must be experiential. Where no experience is available, the assumptions used to make the projection must be clearly disclosed. The actuary must project some type of plan cost, disclosing with specificity the basis of such projection.
- 9
Self-funded plan statistics are arranged into three categories. Which of the following is classified as 'essential to monitor the plan'?
- •Claims by types of in-hospital service
- •Monthly breakdown of benefits paid by attained age group
- •Paid benefits by month
- •Payment profiles by providers
Show answer
Paid benefits by month
The course lists four essential statistics: paid benefits by month, annual benefits paid to providers in excess of $1,000, monthly and annual plan account reconciliation, and quarterly disability payments with FICA withhold. Monthly breakdown by age group is 'needed to reasonably monitor,' while claims by in-hospital service type and payment profiles are 'desirable but not essential.'
- 10
The course identifies an unattractive feature of large computer analyses for self-funded plan statistics. Which of the following captures both drawbacks mentioned?
- •The analyses require annual recalibration by the plan supervisor, and output formats are nonstandard
- •The data output is unreliable and untested, and it requires specialized actuarial staff to interpret
- •The maintenance and input of data is expensive and slows down processing time, and many employers neither need nor want the extensive data available
- •The systems cannot integrate with stop-loss carrier platforms, and the statistical output is unpredictable
Show answer
The maintenance and input of data is expensive and slows down processing time, and many employers neither need nor want the extensive data available
The course states that with large computer analyses, the unattractive features are that the maintenance and input of data to obtain the statistical output is expensive and slows down processing time; also, many employers neither need nor want the extensive data available to them.
- 11
Information needed to complete IRS Form 990, DOL/IRS Form 5500, or IRS Form 1041 is classified in which way by the course for purposes of self-funded plan statistical analysis?
- •It is classified as desirable but not essential
- •It is classified as essential to monitor the plan
- •It is classified as needed to reasonably monitor the plan
- •It is not deemed to be statistical
Show answer
It is not deemed to be statistical
The course explicitly states that information needed to complete IRS Form 990, DOL/IRS Form 5500, or IRS Form 1041 (needed for quarterly FICA reports or disability income payments) and the annual IRS Form 1099 statements to providers is not deemed to be statistical.
- 12
Which of the following is listed as a source of statistics for an actuary involved with self-funded healthcare plans?
- •America's Health Insurance Plans (AHIP)
- •The Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC)
- •The National Association of Insurance Commissioners (NAIC)
- •The Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation (PBGC)
Show answer
America's Health Insurance Plans (AHIP)
The course lists several sources of statistics: Society of Actuaries, Conference of Consulting Actuaries, CMS, International Foundation of Employee Benefit Plans, Social Security Administration, U.S. Chamber of Commerce, AHIP, Employee Benefit Research Institute, and Risk and Insurance Management Society.
- 13
Savings due to coordination of benefits or subrogation falls under which category of self-funded plan statistics?
- •Desirable, but not essential
- •Essential to monitor the plan
- •Needed to reasonably monitor the plan
- •Not deemed to be statistical
Show answer
Needed to reasonably monitor the plan
The course classifies savings due to certain plan provisions such as coordination of benefits or subrogation under 'needed to reasonably monitor the plan' — statistics that are needed but without which the plan could function in a legal way.
- 14
In the Equity Funding court case discussed in the course, the consulting actuarial firm was charged with three offenses. Which of the following correctly lists all three?
- •Breach of contract, negligent omission, and unwarranted delays in reporting
- •Common law neglect, fraud, and breach of fiduciary duties by not discovering the error
- •ERISA breach, malpractice, and failure to disclose pertinent facts
- •Securities fraud, reckless misstatement, and failure to exercise professional care
Show answer
Common law neglect, fraud, and breach of fiduciary duties by not discovering the error
In the Equity Funding case, the actuary was party with others of insurer's management in perpetrating a massive fraud under SEC rules. The consulting actuarial firm was charged with (1) common law neglect, (2) fraud, and (3) breach of fiduciary duties by not discovering the error. The basic error was making up bogus insurance policies.
- 15
Which of the following is NOT listed as a usual defense for an actuary facing professional liability claims?
- •Any damages were not a result of negligence
- •Others caused or contributed to the negligence
- •The actuary relied on industry-standard assumptions published by an actuarial organization
- •There was no negligence
Show answer
The actuary relied on industry-standard assumptions published by an actuarial organization
The course lists three usual defenses for the actuary: (1) there was no negligence, (2) any damages were not a result of negligence, and (3) others caused or contributed to the negligence. Reliance on industry-standard assumptions is not listed as a defense.
- 16
Under what conditions have courts held that an actuary did NOT commit an ERISA-contemplated professional breach, even when alleged professional errors occurred?
- •When plan assets were unaffected and no fraud or egregious act had been perpetrated by the actuary
- •When the actuary held a valid enrolled actuary designation and followed all published standards
- •When the employer signed a hold-harmless agreement as part of the engagement letter
- •When the error was corrected within 90 days and the plan was made whole
Show answer
When plan assets were unaffected and no fraud or egregious act had been perpetrated by the actuary
The course states that courts have held the actuary did not commit an ERISA-contemplated professional breach so long as (a) plan assets were unaffected and (b) no fraud or egregious act had been perpetrated by the actuary. DOL regulations also provide that actuaries performing typical professional functions will generally not be considered ERISA fiduciaries.
- 17
Which of the following is listed as a cause of action that can expose an actuary to professional liability?
- •Declining to certify reserves when data is insufficient
- •Disagreement with the accountant's reserve methodology
- •Failure to discover fraud
- •Using a lag study projection method instead of a formula method
Show answer
Failure to discover fraud
The course identifies four causes of action: (1) failure to disclose pertinent facts, (2) failure to discover fraud, (3) negligent omission, and (4) unwarranted delays. The actuary will be in trouble if a showing of breach or negligence results in damages.
- 18
In the Saffo v. Occidental case discussed in the course, what was the outcome when pension actuaries erred in understating plan costs?
- •The actuaries were found negligent but damages were limited to the fee paid for actuarial services
- •The court dismissed the case because the participants lacked standing to sue the actuary directly
- •The court found the actuaries guilty of malpractice, fraud, and breach of fiduciary duties, and the insurer was required to pay benefits originally calculated
- •The employer was held solely responsible because the actuary's engagement letter limited liability
Show answer
The court found the actuaries guilty of malpractice, fraud, and breach of fiduciary duties, and the insurer was required to pay benefits originally calculated
In Saffo v. Occidental, pension actuaries erred in understating plan costs. The employer reduced benefits below what had been promised. Participants sued the employer. The court found that the actuaries were guilty of malpractice, fraud, and breach of fiduciary duties. The insurer was required to pay benefits originally calculated.
- 19
For third-party reliance on an actuary's signed report, what must normally be found for there to be liability?
- •A demonstration that the actuary failed to include a reliance limitation disclaimer
- •A finding of fraud
- •A finding of simple negligence in the underlying calculations
- •A showing that the third party was a reasonably foreseeable user of the report
Show answer
A finding of fraud
The course states that for there to be a liability due to third-party reliance, normally there must be a finding of fraud. The actuary would be excused unless the certification involved lack of knowledge, reckless misstatement, or an opinion based on flimsy grounds.
- 20
According to the course, which type of damage involves the actuary paying for losses in stock values that resulted from the actuary's error?
- •It applies only when the actuary committed intentional fraud, not negligent errors
- •It is classified as punitive damages requiring a showing of reckless disregard
- •It is not recognized as a recoverable damage in actuarial liability cases
- •It is one of seven categories of damages the actuary may be expected to pay
Show answer
It is one of seven categories of damages the actuary may be expected to pay
The course lists seven categories of damages: (1) money embezzled after discovery should have been made, (2) avoidable damages, (3) added taxes/penalties/fees, (4) punitive damages for reckless disregard or fraud, (5) unwarranted dividends, (6) losses in stock values, and (7) lost or refunded fees. Stock value losses are a separate category from punitive damages.
- 21
In the British Columbia Automobile Association case, the actuarial errors were admitted. What was the central issue before the court?
- •Whether the actuary held the proper credentials to perform the pension valuation
- •Whether the admitted errors resulted in the alleged damages — specifically, whether the client would have adopted the pension plan amendment had correct figures been presented
- •Whether the errors constituted fraud under securities regulations
- •Whether the insurer or the actuary bore primary liability for the plan's underfunding
Show answer
Whether the admitted errors resulted in the alleged damages — specifically, whether the client would have adopted the pension plan amendment had correct figures been presented
In the British Columbia Automobile Association case, the insurer and actuary were sued for breach of contract, fiduciary duties, and negligence. The errors were admitted; the issue was whether they resulted in alleged damages — specifically, would the client have adopted the pension plan amendment had the correct figures been presented? The errors were minor in nature.
- 22
The MEWA came into existence when ERISA was amended by which legislation?
- •The Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1985
- •The Deficit Reduction Act of 1984
- •The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996
- •The Tax Reform Act of 1986
Show answer
The Deficit Reduction Act of 1984
The course states that the MEWA came into existence when ERISA was amended by the Deficit Reduction Act of 1984. The thrust of the federal legislation was that self-funded MEWAs should be permitted but subject to state regulation.
- 23
Why are self-funded government entity plans described as basically unregulated, and what have certain states done in response?
- •They are exempt from both COBRA and HIPAA, so the DOL has imposed federal reserve requirements
- •They are exempted by the McCarran-Ferguson Act, so CMS has created a parallel regulatory framework
- •They are non-ERISA and noninsurance, so states like Iowa, Florida, California, and Ohio have enacted special statutes to regulate them
- •They fall under sovereign immunity, so only the federal government can impose actuarial standards
Show answer
They are non-ERISA and noninsurance, so states like Iowa, Florida, California, and Ohio have enacted special statutes to regulate them
The course explains that self-funded government entity plans are basically unregulated because they are non-ERISA and also noninsurance. Several states, including Iowa, Florida, California (public schools), and Ohio, have enacted special statutes regulating such plans.
- 24
Which of the following is NOT listed as an actuarial certification required for governmental entity plans?
- •Appropriate level of plan contributions
- •Compliance with federal ERISA fiduciary standards
- •Overall actuarial soundness of the plan
- •Presence of appropriate stop-loss coverage
Show answer
Compliance with federal ERISA fiduciary standards
The course lists four actuarial certifications required for governmental entity plans: (1) overall actuarial soundness, (2) presence of appropriate stop-loss coverage, (3) adequate claim reserve, and (4) appropriate level of plan contributions. Since governmental plans are non-ERISA, ERISA fiduciary compliance is not applicable.
- 25
What authority do states have to demand actuarially certified reserves in audited financial statements for MEWAs?
- •ERISA Section 3(40)(A) provides states with this authority
- •IRC Section 419A requires state-level verification of MEWA reserve adequacy
- •The Deficit Reduction Act grants exclusive federal authority, which states may adopt by reference
- •The McCarran-Ferguson Act Section 2(b) delegates insurance regulation to states for this purpose
Show answer
ERISA Section 3(40)(A) provides states with this authority
The course states that many states have their own MEWA legislation demanding actuarially certified reserves in audited financial statements, and that states are provided with the authority to make this demand by ERISA Section 3(40)(A).
- 26
What is the maximum COBRA premium that can be charged to qualified beneficiaries for the standard 18-month continuation period?
- •100% of the applicable premium with no administrative surcharge permitted
- •102% of the cost to the plan for similarly situated individuals who have not experienced a qualifying event
- •110% of the cost to the plan to account for adverse selection by COBRA participants
- •150% of the cost to the plan as determined by actuarial analysis
Show answer
102% of the cost to the plan for similarly situated individuals who have not experienced a qualifying event
The COBRA statute provides that the maximum premium is 102% of the cost to the plan for similarly situated individuals who have not experienced a qualifying event. This 102% includes the full cost of coverage plus a 2% administrative fee.
- 27
The course identifies a COBRA premium method not recognized by COBRA law that carries potential problems for plan administrators. Which method is this, and what is a key risk?
- •The community-rating method, which violates the similarly situated requirement by pooling all groups
- •The fully insured equivalent method, which may result in significantly overstated COBRA premiums because stop-loss often represents the worst-case scenario
- •The past cost method, which understates premiums by failing to account for future benefit increases
- •The retrospective premium method, which creates refund obligations when claims are lower than projected
Show answer
The fully insured equivalent method, which may result in significantly overstated COBRA premiums because stop-loss often represents the worst-case scenario
The fully insured equivalent method bases COBRA premiums on stop-loss terms and is not recognized by COBRA law. The course warns that COBRA premiums under this method often represent the worst-case scenario and may be significantly overstated.
- 28
For the COBRA disability extension period (months 19-29), what is the maximum premium that may be charged?
- •102% of the cost of coverage, the same as the initial 18-month period
- •125% of the cost of coverage as actuarially determined by the plan's retained actuary
- •150% of the cost of coverage for the 11-month extension period
- •200% of the cost of coverage due to the higher expected utilization of disabled individuals
Show answer
150% of the cost of coverage for the 11-month extension period
For individuals eligible for the disability extension, the plan can charge up to 150% of the cost of coverage for the 11-month extension period (months 19 through 29).
- 29
When two divisions share a common plan (one plan name, one plan sponsor, one plan number), how should COBRA premiums be determined?
- •COBRA premiums for both divisions must be the same regardless of each division's different claims experience
- •COBRA premiums must be weighted by the number of participants in each division
- •Each division may set its own COBRA premium based on its separate claims experience
- •The division with higher claims experience sets the premium for both divisions
Show answer
COBRA premiums for both divisions must be the same regardless of each division's different claims experience
The course states that where two divisions share a common plan (defined as one plan name, one plan sponsor, and one plan number) COBRA premiums for both divisions must be the same regardless of each division's different claims experience.
- 30
A plan has composite claims experience but a high-low benefit structure. What must the actuary perform to properly set COBRA premiums for each option?
- •A benefit content analysis to measure the economic value between the high and low options and develop cost indices
- •A credibility-weighted blend of the composite experience and community-rated manual rates for each option
- •A Monte Carlo simulation using separate seed numbers for each option to model expected claims
- •A retrospective premium allocation that divides total claims proportionally by enrollment in each option
Show answer
A benefit content analysis to measure the economic value between the high and low options and develop cost indices
The course states that when experience is composite but the plan has a high-low benefit structure, a benefit content analysis is needed. The example shows Plan Option A with a cost index of 100 and Plan Option B with a cost index of .88.
- 31
The course explains why a participant/spouse (P/S) tier with a factor of 2.2 is illogical for COBRA purposes. What is the reason?
- •Spousal coverage is always secondary to the participant's coverage under COBRA regulations
- •The 2.2 factor exceeds the 102% statutory maximum when both spouses contribute
- •The P/S tier creates a compliance issue under the similarly situated rules for geographic areas
- •The participant and spouse may each elect COBRA as individual beneficiaries, making the 2.2 combined premium pointless or ineffectual
Show answer
The participant and spouse may each elect COBRA as individual beneficiaries, making the 2.2 combined premium pointless or ineffectual
The course notes that a tier such as 1P; 2.2 P/S is illogical because the participant and spouse may each elect COBRA as individual beneficiaries, making the 2.2 combined premium pointless or ineffectual.
- 32
The course argues that having the participant premium as high as practical relative to the family premium is logical from a risk management standpoint. What reasoning supports this?
- •A COBRA participant can select against the plan by electing COBRA for only sick children while excluding healthy family members
- •Federal regulations require the participant tier to be at least 60% of the family tier to prevent discrimination
- •Higher participant premiums reduce the overall COBRA take-up rate, lowering plan exposure
- •Participants are more likely than families to have catastrophic claims that exceed the specific stop-loss
Show answer
A COBRA participant can select against the plan by electing COBRA for only sick children while excluding healthy family members
The course states that having the participant premium high relative to the family is logical from a risk management standpoint when considering the ability of the COBRA participant to select against the plan by electing COBRA for two sick children only but not on the other family members in good health.
- 33
Under what condition may a plan vary COBRA premiums by age or geographic area?
- •Only when the plan has at least 500 participants and the actuary certifies that the variation is cost-neutral
- •Only when the state in which the plan operates has adopted enabling legislation permitting age-rated premiums
- •Only when the variation does not exceed 15% from the composite premium and is approved by the DOL
- •Such practice must be formalized in the plan document, and under the similarly situated rules, the variations must apply to COBRA premiums
Show answer
Such practice must be formalized in the plan document, and under the similarly situated rules, the variations must apply to COBRA premiums
The course states that nothing prevents a plan from considering age and geography as a factor in funding policy, so long as such practice is formalized in the plan document. Once established, such variations must apply to COBRA premiums under the similarly situated rules.
- 34
Which of the following is NOT listed as a reason against using the fully insured equivalent method for COBRA premiums?
- •Stop-loss is not part of the plan because the plan sponsor is the applicant, owner, payer, and beneficiary
- •The life and health guaranty association coverage will in most instances not protect the employer if the insurer fails
- •The method has been successfully challenged by attorneys in wrongful termination cases, particularly regarding the aggregate corridor as a plan expense
- •The method produces premiums that are consistently lower than the actuarially determined method
Show answer
The method produces premiums that are consistently lower than the actuarially determined method
The course lists multiple reasons against the fully insured equivalent method but does NOT say it produces lower premiums. In fact, the course warns that it often overstates premiums. The method has been challenged legally, stop-loss is not part of the plan, and guaranty association coverage may not protect the employer.
- 35
For managed care arrangements, how should COBRA premiums be shown when in-network and out-of-network cost indices differ (e.g., 100 in-network vs. 80 out-of-network)?
- •Assume the COBRA beneficiary has a network option, regardless of whether the beneficiary is in the plan's geographic area
- •Offer two separate COBRA premiums and let the beneficiary choose based on geographic location
- •Use a blended rate weighted by the historical in-network vs. out-of-network utilization ratio
- •Use the out-of-network cost index for all COBRA beneficiaries to avoid understating premiums
Show answer
Assume the COBRA beneficiary has a network option, regardless of whether the beneficiary is in the plan's geographic area
The course states that the preferred way is to have the COBRA premium calculation assume that the COBRA beneficiary has a network option, regardless of whether the beneficiary is in the plan's geographic area.
- 36
The past cost method for determining COBRA premiums must be modified under which circumstance?
- •When the plan has been in operation for fewer than three full plan years
- •When the plan sponsor changes from a general asset funding arrangement to a trust
- •When the plan's stop-loss specific deductible has been lowered by more than 10%
- •When there are significant changes in benefits, eligibility, census, etc., between the current and upcoming plan year
Show answer
When there are significant changes in benefits, eligibility, census, etc., between the current and upcoming plan year
The course states that the past cost method projects past claims forward and spreads them among participants. It must be modified where there are significant changes in benefits, eligibility, census, etc., between the current and the upcoming plan year.
- 37
Which portion of the COBRA premium should be used when establishing funding levels for the plan?
- •The claims-only portion of the COBRA premium
- •The COBRA premium adjusted for the expected anti-selection of COBRA beneficiaries
- •The COBRA premium less any stop-loss premium component
- •The full 102% COBRA premium including the administrative surcharge
Show answer
The claims-only portion of the COBRA premium
The course states that the claims-only portion of the COBRA premium should be used when establishing funding levels. COBRA premiums are also useful in setting participant contributions and for IRS Form 1099 purposes.
- 38
A plan sponsor wants to use COBRA premiums for purposes beyond COBRA continuation coverage. Which of the following is NOT listed as such a use?
- •Determining the employer's annual tax deduction for plan contributions under IRC Section 419A
- •Facilitating intercorporate expense transfers between related employers
- •Serving as a basis for determining participant contributions
- •Setting a contribution amount and preparing IRS Form 1099 for highly compensated employees with discriminatory benefits
Show answer
Determining the employer's annual tax deduction for plan contributions under IRC Section 419A
The course lists several beyond-COBRA uses: setting contributions, IRS Form 1099 for HCEs, determining participant contributions, funding purposes, and intercorporate expense transfers. It does not list determining the IRC Section 419A tax deduction as a use of COBRA premiums.
- 39
The course identifies three primary reasons why an accountant will request actuarially computed claim reserves. Which of the following is NOT one of those reasons?
- •Compliance-related: accountant's statement with DOL/IRS Form 5500 under SOP 92-6
- •Employer-related: contingency reserve for GAAP filers under FAS 5
- •Tax-related: trust filings require claim reserves using both IBNR and 'in course of settlement' portions
- •To determine the employer's annual stop-loss premium deduction
Show answer
To determine the employer's annual stop-loss premium deduction
The three primary reasons are: (1) Tax-Related — trust filings require IBNR and in-course-of-settlement reserves, (2) Employer-Related — contingency reserve for GAAP filers under FAS 5, and (3) Compliance-Related — accountant's statement with DOL/IRS Form 5500 under SOP 92-6. Stop-loss premium deductions are not listed.
- 40
In the discussion situation where claims being processed total $10,000, approved claims total $20,000, and the lag study shows $120,000 (service date) or $200,000 (SOP 92-6 date), what is the employer taxpayer's maximum tax deduction for a general asset plan?
- •$120,000, because the full lag study reserve using service date incurred is deductible
- •$20,000, because only formally approved claims qualify as a tax deduction
- •$200,000, because SOP 92-6 reserves represent the true economic liability
- •$30,000, because only reported claims (in-process $10,000 plus approved $20,000) are deductible and IBNR is not
Show answer
$30,000, because only reported claims (in-process $10,000 plus approved $20,000) are deductible and IBNR is not
Per Rev. Rul. 79-338 and U.S. v. General Dynamics, the employer may deduct only up to $30,000 (the $10,000 in-process claims plus $20,000 approved). The in-process claims are allowed because they are reported, even though not formally approved. The IBNR of $90,000 ($120,000 less $30,000) is not deductible for a general asset plan.
- 41
In the discussion situation, the FAS 5 contingent liability for a general asset employer should be set at what amount, and why is the SOP 92-6 reserve of $200,000 not used?
- •$120,000, because SOP 92-6 reserves are uncertain both as to nature and amount, and the smaller service-date reserve should be used for employer financials
- •$200,000, because FAS 5 requires the most conservative estimate of contingent liability
- •$30,000, because contingent liability cannot exceed the tax-deductible amount
- •$320,000, because FAS 5 requires combining both traditional and SOP 92-6 reserves
Show answer
$120,000, because SOP 92-6 reserves are uncertain both as to nature and amount, and the smaller service-date reserve should be used for employer financials
The course states that the contingent liability of $120,000 might be recognized under FAS 5. The SOP 92-6 reserve of $200,000 should not be used because it is uncertain both as to nature and amount, so the smaller reserve of $120,000 should be used for employer financials.
- 42
For a trusteed (funded) healthcare plan, what reserve amount would the employer taxpayer use under IRC Section 419A(c)(1)(A)?
- •$120,000 — the reserve for claims incurred but unpaid, which should be actuarially certified as claimable as a deduction
- •$200,000 — the full SOP 92-6 reserve must be used for funded plan deductions
- •$30,000 — only the reported and in-process claims qualify for a trusteed plan deduction
- •$320,000 — the sum of traditional and SOP 92-6 reserves is required for IRC Section 419A
Show answer
$120,000 — the reserve for claims incurred but unpaid, which should be actuarially certified as claimable as a deduction
For a trusteed plan, the reserve of $120,000 for claims incurred but unpaid is required by IRC Section 419A(c)(1)(A). This reserve should be actuarially certified as claimable as a deduction, regardless of whether the employer follows GAAP rules.
- 43
For plan-related reporting under SOP 92-6, what total plan liability would the accountant show on the DOL/IRS Form 5500, and how may this liability be offset?
- •$120,000, offset by the present value of stop-loss reimbursements expected
- •$200,000, offset by a hard asset such as cash held in the plan trust
- •$30,000, offset by the employer's commitment letter to fund any shortfall
- •$320,000 ($120,000 plus $200,000), offset by an asset titled 'Present Value of Future Plan Contributions' or similar
Show answer
$320,000 ($120,000 plus $200,000), offset by an asset titled 'Present Value of Future Plan Contributions' or similar
In accordance with SOP 92-6, the accountant would put the total plan liabilities at $320,000 ($120,000 plus $200,000). Such liability may be offset by an asset titled 'Present Value of Future Plan Contributions' or similar.
- 44
Reserves for non-employer plans (union, Taft-Hartley, employee-pay-all, or VEBA) are treated differently from employer plans for what reason?
- •They are exempt from all actuarial certification requirements
- •They are not subject to limitations for federal income purposes under IRC Sections 419A(f)(5) and (6)
- •They are required to use the safe harbor rules without exception
- •They must use SOP 92-6 definitions exclusively and cannot rely on lag study methods
Show answer
They are not subject to limitations for federal income purposes under IRC Sections 419A(f)(5) and (6)
The course states that reserves for non-employer plans (union, Taft-Hartley, employee-pay-all, or VEBA) are not subject to limitations for federal income purposes per IRC Sections 419A(f)(5) and (6).
- 45
The plan supervisor should provide two lag study formats for claim reserve computation. What distinguishes the two formats?
- •One includes claims above the specific stop-loss limit, while the other excludes them
- •One is based on a 12-month rolling period, while the other uses the plan year only
- •One uses paid claims on a cash basis, while the other uses accrued claims on a GAAP basis
- •One uses the date the service was provided as the incurred date, while the other uses the date of onset of the accident or illness (the SOP 92-6 liability)
Show answer
One uses the date the service was provided as the incurred date, while the other uses the date of onset of the accident or illness (the SOP 92-6 liability)
The course states that two lag study formats should be provided: one with (a) an incurred date the service was provided and another with (b) an incurred date of the onset of the accident or illness. The (b) portion is the liability created by AICPA SOP 92-6.
- 46
Why should the claim reserve computation be delayed as long as possible, according to the course?
- •Due to rapid maturation of the claims runout, which provides more accurate data
- •To allow time for stop-loss reimbursements to be received and factored into the computation
- •To ensure all COBRA beneficiary claims have been fully processed
- •To synchronize the computation with the employer's tax filing deadline
Show answer
Due to rapid maturation of the claims runout, which provides more accurate data
The course states that the computation should be delayed as long as possible, due to rapid maturation of the claims runout. As more claims are processed and paid, the lag study data becomes more complete and the reserve estimate more accurate.
- 47
When the plan supervisor's actuary fee is shopped for cost against competing actuaries, which actuary's fee will usually be lowest and why?
- •An independent consulting actuary, because they have no overhead costs tied to plan administration
- •The accountant's in-house actuary, because overhead is shared with audit and consulting services
- •The employer's pension actuary, because the retainer already covers health actuarial services
- •The existing plan supervisor's actuary, because that actuary is familiar with the data, workflow will be smoother, and greater employer input is possible
Show answer
The existing plan supervisor's actuary, because that actuary is familiar with the data, workflow will be smoother, and greater employer input is possible
The course states that if the fee of the plan supervisor's actuary is shopped for cost, the existing actuary's fee will usually be lowest because the actuary is familiar with the data, the workflow will be smoother, and greater employer input is possible.
- 48
Once the claim reserve has been computed and the certification signed, to whom is the document usually transmitted and why?
- •Directly to the accountant, so as to achieve independence
- •To the plan sponsor first, who then forwards it to the accountant after review
- •To the plan supervisor, who files it with the DOL/IRS Form 5500
- •To the state insurance department, as required for regulatory compliance
Show answer
Directly to the accountant, so as to achieve independence
The course states that once the reserve has been computed and the certification signed by the actuary, the document is usually transmitted to the accountant directly so as to achieve independence. Copies will normally be provided to the employer and plan supervisor.
- 49
For a qualified IRC Section 501(c)(9) trust, the deductibility of contributions tracks which entity, and what is the trust's role?
- •Deductibility is split between the trust and employer based on the proportion of investment vs. contribution income
- •Deductibility tracks neither entity because qualified trusts are fully tax-exempt on all income
- •Deductibility tracks the employer-sponsor, and the trust is merely the depository of claim reserves that determines the employer's tax liability
- •Deductibility tracks the trust itself, and the employer's role is limited to making contributions
Show answer
Deductibility tracks the employer-sponsor, and the trust is merely the depository of claim reserves that determines the employer's tax liability
The course states that since the IRC Section 501(c)(9) trust is qualified and therefore nontaxable, the deductibility of contributions tracks the employer-sponsor and not the trust. The trust is merely the depository of the claim reserves that determines the employer's tax liability. This does not rule out taxes on unrelated trust income.
- 50
A qualified trust files which IRS form, and a nonqualified trust files which?
- •Both qualified and nonqualified trusts file IRS Form 5500
- •Qualified trust files IRS Form 1041; nonqualified trust files IRS Form 990
- •Qualified trust files IRS Form 1120; nonqualified trust files IRS Form 990
- •Qualified trust files IRS Form 990; nonqualified trust files IRS Form 1041
Show answer
Qualified trust files IRS Form 990; nonqualified trust files IRS Form 1041
The course states that where the trust is qualified, a tax return, IRS Form 990, must be filed. Where the trust is nonqualified, IRS Form 1041 must be filed.
CSFS is the Certified Self-Funding Specialist designation. These are my own practice questions, written while studying for the exam. This site is not affiliated with, endorsed by, or connected to the organisation that administers the CSFS designation, and nothing here is official exam content or a substitute for the course material.
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