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CSFS Course 5

Actuarial, Legal, Reporting and Disclosure

Setting rates and attachment points, the actuarial basis behind them, and the reporting and disclosure obligations a plan sponsor carries — including the documents that prove the plan exists.

315 practice questions · page 3 of 7, questions 101–150 · answers and explanations included · updated September 2026

50 questions on this page 3 of 7, each with the answer and the reasoning behind it. Read straight through, or quiz yourself on them and the ones you miss stay in rotation until you get them right.

  1. 101

    Which of the following is NOT listed as a method to control anti-selection in multiple option plans?

    • Introducing age-rated participant contributions for self-funded plans
    • Pairing benefits so that low-medical and high-dental combinations are precluded
    • Requiring a minimum core benefit package for all options
    • Requiring all participants to undergo annual medical underwriting before selecting an option
    Show answer

    Requiring all participants to undergo annual medical underwriting before selecting an option

    The course lists six controls: limit choices, pair benefits, core benefits, graded benefits, age-rated pricing (self-funded only), and offsetting selection through subdivision. Annual medical underwriting is not listed as a control method.

  2. 102

    The course describes the 'horror story' peril of anti-selection. What specifically occurs?

    • Anti-selection is so severe that the high-benefit plan self-destructs when the few healthy participants refuse to carry the increasing number of sick ones
    • The employer faces DOL penalties for failing to provide equitable benefit options
    • The low-benefit plan loses all participants to the high-benefit plan, eliminating the employer's cost savings
    • The stop-loss carrier refuses to renew coverage because the anti-selection makes the plan uninsurable
    Show answer

    Anti-selection is so severe that the high-benefit plan self-destructs when the few healthy participants refuse to carry the increasing number of sick ones

    The course states the horror story to avoid is where anti-selection is so severe that it causes the high-benefit plan to self-destruct, which can occur when the few healthy ones in the pool refuse to carry the increasing number of sick ones.

  3. 103

    Anti-selection research by the Society of Actuaries has found that not all HMOs agree they get only the younger and healthier risks. What factors affect this?

    • The age of the HMO and whether it offers prescription drug coverage
    • The size of the employer group and the number of options offered
    • The type of HMO (staff vs. IPA) and geographic location
    • Whether the HMO is federally qualified and the level of employer contributions
    Show answer

    The type of HMO (staff vs. IPA) and geographic location

    The course states that research shows not all HMOs will agree that they get only the younger and healthier risks; it depends upon the HMO (staff vs. IPA, geographic, etc.).

  4. 104

    The course lists several dampeners to the forces of anti-selection. Which of the following is one such dampener?

    • Federal regulations prohibit participants from switching plans more than once every three years
    • Plan supervisors are required to provide anti-selection counseling during open enrollment
    • Some people in poor health have a mental block against recognizing that fact, so they do not select the high-benefit plan
    • Stop-loss carriers impose penalties on plans with demonstrated anti-selection patterns
    Show answer

    Some people in poor health have a mental block against recognizing that fact, so they do not select the high-benefit plan

    The course lists several dampeners: some people out of fear gravitate to high plans; unless the price spread is large, why choose the low plan; employers can influence choice through communications; some in poor health have a mental block against recognizing it; and people are not sophisticated enough to outguess the system.

  5. 105

    The basic pricing procedure for multiple option plans follows four sequential steps. What is the correct order?

    • Anticipate anti-selection, gather data, project with trending, estimate populations by option
    • Estimate populations by option, gather data and analyze it, anticipate anti-selection, project with trending
    • Gather data and analyze it, project with trending, estimate populations by option, anticipate and factor in anti-selection
    • Project with trending, gather data, estimate populations by option, set contribution levels
    Show answer

    Gather data and analyze it, project with trending, estimate populations by option, anticipate and factor in anti-selection

    The course lists the basic pricing procedure as: Step 1 — Gather data and analyze it; Step 2 — Project with trending; Step 3 — Estimate populations by option; Step 4 — Anticipate and factor in anti-selection.

  6. 106

    In the pricing example, an indemnity plan (Option A, $500 deductible) had an expected loss ratio of 75% but an actual loss ratio of 95% after three years. What was the underlying cause?

    • Healthy and younger risks went to the HMO (Plan B), leaving the indemnity plan with an older and sicker group that drove up the loss ratio
    • Medical inflation exceeded projections by 20%, increasing claims costs across all options equally
    • The $500 deductible was too low to deter excessive utilization by indemnity plan participants
    • The employer reduced contributions to the indemnity plan, forcing a higher loss ratio
    Show answer

    Healthy and younger risks went to the HMO (Plan B), leaving the indemnity plan with an older and sicker group that drove up the loss ratio

    The course explains that the healthy and younger risks went to Plan B (HMO), leaving Plan A with an older and sicker group. In broad terms, people with actual or perceived needs gravitated to the high-benefit plan, causing the loss ratio to rise from 75% expected to 95% actual.

  7. 107

    What are the four traditional pricing objectives listed in the course?

    • Break-even funding, equitable premiums, anti-selection control, and administrative efficiency
    • Contributions sufficient to pay claims and expenses, equitable distribution, encouragement of cost containment, and simplicity
    • Cost neutrality, actuarial soundness, competitive positioning, and transparency
    • Revenue maximization, risk minimization, regulatory compliance, and participant satisfaction
    Show answer

    Contributions sufficient to pay claims and expenses, equitable distribution, encouragement of cost containment, and simplicity

    The course lists four traditional pricing objectives: (1) contributions sufficient to pay claims and expenses, (2) equitable distribution, (3) encouragement of cost containment, and (4) simplicity.

  8. 108

    In the pricing example with a dual option plan, the composite expected loss ratio was 69% but the actual composite was 75%. Which plan's actual loss ratio was below its expected, and what does this indicate?

    • Both plans exceeded their expected loss ratios, and the composite was driven by enrollment shifts
    • Plan A (Indemnity) had an actual loss ratio of 70% versus expected 75%, indicating effective cost containment
    • Plan B (HMO) had an actual loss ratio of 55% versus expected 63%, indicating it attracted healthier risks than anticipated
    • Plan B had an actual loss ratio of 63% versus expected 55%, indicating anti-selection toward the HMO
    Show answer

    Plan B (HMO) had an actual loss ratio of 55% versus expected 63%, indicating it attracted healthier risks than anticipated

    In the example, Plan B (HMO) had an expected loss ratio of 63% but an actual of 55%, meaning it attracted healthier-than-expected risks. Meanwhile, Plan A (Indemnity) went from 75% expected to 95% actual due to adverse selection concentrating sicker risks.

  9. 109

    What are the four criteria for satisfactory self-funded contributions?

    • Adequate, conservative, flexible, and tax-deductible
    • Adequate, equitable, consistent, and competitive or reasonable
    • Equitable, inflation-adjusted, fully funded, and ERISA-compliant
    • Sufficient, transparent, actuarially sound, and nondiscriminatory
    Show answer

    Adequate, equitable, consistent, and competitive or reasonable

    The course states that the criteria for satisfactory self-funded contributions are: adequate, equitable, consistent, and competitive or reasonable.

  10. 110

    When estimating funding levels, paid benefits should be adjusted by a trend factor. What range is common for this adjustment?

    • 0% to 3% to adjust for marginal cost increases net of managed care savings
    • 15% to 25% to adjust for catastrophic claim trends and medical technology costs
    • 2% to 4% to adjust for general consumer price inflation only
    • 6% to 12% to adjust for increased medical utilization and inflation
    Show answer

    6% to 12% to adjust for increased medical utilization and inflation

    The course states that paid benefits should be increased by some percent (6%-12% range is common) to adjust for increased medical utilization and inflation.

  11. 111

    The safe harbor limit under the Code for reserves is stated as what multiple of average paid benefits?

    • 2.0 months of average paid benefits
    • 3.5 months of average paid benefits
    • 4.2 months of average paid benefits
    • 6.0 months of average paid benefits
    Show answer

    4.2 months of average paid benefits

    The course notes that group major medical benefit reserves are in the two months of average paid benefit range as a rule of thumb, but the safe harbor limit of the Code is 4.2 months of average paid benefits.

  12. 112

    For a first-year plan, the beginning reserve is $0. What approximation does the course give for the ending reserve?

    • About 35% of total annual paid claims
    • About one month of average claims
    • About six months of average claims
    • About three months of average claims
    Show answer

    About three months of average claims

    The course states that if the plan year experience is first year only, the beginning reserve is $0; the ending will be about three months of average claims.

  13. 113

    When the plan year participant count increased during the year, why must an average count be used rather than the year-end count for funding calculations?

    • Using the year-end count would create a tax deduction larger than what IRC Section 419A permits
    • Using the year-end count would overstate the population and understate the per-capita costs
    • Using the year-end count would understate the population and overstate the per-capita costs
    • Using the year-end count would violate the similarly situated rules under COBRA
    Show answer

    Using the year-end count would overstate the population and understate the per-capita costs

    The course states that if the participant count increased during the plan year, the average count is needed; to use the plan year-end count would overstate the population and understate the costs.

  14. 114

    If $1,000,000 in paid benefits includes numerous large claimants (over $50,000) who have since recovered or terminated, what adjustment should be made for funding projections?

    • An upward adjustment to build a margin for potential new large claimants
    • No adjustment, because large claims are expected to recur at the same rate in future periods
    • Some downward adjustment in paid benefits, since these nonrecurring large claims will not repeat
    • The large claims should be excluded entirely and replaced with industry-average large claim costs
    Show answer

    Some downward adjustment in paid benefits, since these nonrecurring large claims will not repeat

    The course states that if the $1,000,000 has numerous large claimants (over $50,000 is a fair guide) who have since recovered or terminated, some downward adjustment in paid benefits would be suggested. Conversely, where potential large claimants are known but not yet reported, an upward adjustment is appropriate.

  15. 115

    Under the Federal HMO Act, the dual choice mandate ended on what date, but what rule remained in effect?

    • After January 1, 2000, the mandate ended, but the equal contribution rule remains
    • After July 1, 1997, the mandate ended, but the guaranteed issue rule remains
    • After March 15, 1990, the mandate ended, but the community rating rule remains
    • After October 24, 1995, the dual choice mandate ended, but the financial discrimination rule remains
    Show answer

    After October 24, 1995, the dual choice mandate ended, but the financial discrimination rule remains

    The course states that after Oct. 24, 1995, employer contributions for any federally qualified HMO may not financially discriminate. Although the HMO dual choice mandate is gone, the financial discrimination rule remains and applies to any employer offering a federally qualified HMO.

  16. 116

    According to CMS regulations, an employer's contribution may reflect the composition of enrollees based on certain attributes. What condition must then be met?

    • For each enrollee in a given class based on these attributes, the employer contributes an equal dollar amount regardless of the plan the employee chooses
    • The employer must contribute at least 50% of the lowest-cost option's premium for each enrollee class
    • The employer must offer identical benefits across all plan options for enrollees in the same class
    • The total employer contribution across all plans must be actuarially equivalent on a per-enrollee basis
    Show answer

    For each enrollee in a given class based on these attributes, the employer contributes an equal dollar amount regardless of the plan the employee chooses

    The course quotes CMS regulations: An employer's contribution may reflect the composition of enrollees according to attributes such as age, sex, and family status that are reasonable predictors of utilization, experience, costs, or risk. For each enrollee in a given class, the employer contributes an equal dollar amount, regardless of the plan chosen.

  17. 117

    When reviewing utilization data to minimize anti-selection between indemnity and HMO plans, what restriction applies to protect privacy?

    • Data review is permitted only by the actuary and must be destroyed within 30 days
    • Only aggregate data may be reviewed, and no individual-level utilization data may be accessed
    • The review of data is acceptable, but the naming of the person and the disease should be avoided
    • Utilization data may not be reviewed at all without written participant consent under HIPAA
    Show answer

    The review of data is acceptable, but the naming of the person and the disease should be avoided

    The course states that direct employer review of who are the high utilizers and for what reasons is a method of controlling anti-selection. Legal difficulties arise in that such analysis may violate state privacy and federal HMO regulations. The review of data is acceptable, but the naming of the person and the disease should be avoided.

  18. 118

    The single carrier option, where one carrier has both an indemnity and HMO plan, faces three practical difficulties. Which is NOT one of them?

    • Geographic restrictions that limit where the HMO can operate
    • The carrier must obtain separate state licenses for each product line in every operating state
    • The employer sees only a single cost, reducing transparency into plan-specific performance
    • The need to offer a staff model as well as an IPA model where available
    Show answer

    The carrier must obtain separate state licenses for each product line in every operating state

    The course lists three practical difficulties with the single carrier option: (a) geographic restrictions, (b) the need to offer a staff model as well as an IPA model where available, and (c) the employer sees only a single cost. Separate licensing is not mentioned.

  19. 119

    In HMO capitation pricing, what is the good rule of thumb regarding what should be capitated?

    • Capitate all services including referrals and hospitalizations to maximize risk transfer to the physician
    • Capitate based on a percentage of the physician's historical revenue rather than controllable services
    • Capitate only primary care visits and exclude all specialist referrals from the capitation
    • Capitate only what is controllable — the more the physician does in-office, the more of the practice risk may be capitated
    Show answer

    Capitate only what is controllable — the more the physician does in-office, the more of the practice risk may be capitated

    The course discusses business control risk in capitation pricing and states a good rule of thumb: capitate only what is controllable. The more the physician does in-office, the more of the practice risk may be capitated.

  20. 120

    The measurement of managed care savings includes four elements. Which of the following is NOT one of them?

    • Incremental value of richer managed care design
    • Lost employee contributions resulting from managed care elections
    • Reduction in stop-loss premiums attributable to managed care network discounts
    • Savings from discounts and utilization control
    Show answer

    Reduction in stop-loss premiums attributable to managed care network discounts

    The four elements are: (1) savings from discounts and utilization control, (2) incremental value of richer managed care design, (3) incremental administrative fees paid for access to managed care, and (4) lost employee contributions resulting from managed care elections.

  21. 121

    How does the actuary determine gross savings from managed care?

    • By accessing charges per claimant and converting the figure to charges per participant
    • By comparing the plan's loss ratio to the industry-average loss ratio for similar managed care plans
    • By running a Monte Carlo simulation with and without managed care network discounts
    • By subtracting managed care administrative fees from the total claims reduction
    Show answer

    By accessing charges per claimant and converting the figure to charges per participant

    The course states that the actuary accesses charges per claimant and converts the figure to charges per participant to determine gross savings from managed care.

  22. 122

    A physician-hospital organization (PHO) receives a fixed amount per member. What actuarial challenge does the course identify with this arrangement?

    • Computing COBRA premiums for PHO participants who are also covered under the employer's self-funded plan
    • Determining whether the PHO qualifies as a MEWA and requires actuarial certification of reserves
    • Distributing the fixed amount among key players becomes a matter of controversy, along with financial solvency and growth decisions
    • Establishing stop-loss coverage for the PHO because traditional carriers will not underwrite capitated arrangements
    Show answer

    Distributing the fixed amount among key players becomes a matter of controversy, along with financial solvency and growth decisions

    The course states that because the PHO receives a fixed amount per member, distributing that money among key players becomes a matter of controversy. Financial solvency and growth also are issues.

  23. 123

    The nature of the short-term disability risk is described as having what combination of characteristics?

    • High frequency with high maximum benefits requiring stop-loss
    • High frequency with relatively low maximum benefits
    • Low frequency with potentially catastrophic benefits
    • Moderate frequency with moderate maximum benefits
    Show answer

    High frequency with relatively low maximum benefits

    The course states that the nature of the short-term disability risk is one of high frequency with relatively low maximum benefits.

  24. 124

    Industries that need careful underwriting or are uninsurable for short-term disability have several characteristics. Which of the following is NOT listed?

    • High turnover of employees
    • Industries with a highly educated workforce and low physical labor requirements
    • Remote locations
    • Seasonal employment
    Show answer

    Industries with a highly educated workforce and low physical labor requirements

    The course lists industries needing careful STD underwriting as having: high turnover, seasonal employment, poor financial condition, highly cyclical or prone to failure, remote locations, high frequency of work-related disability, and self-employment. Highly educated/low physical labor is not listed.

  25. 125

    Medical underwriting for short-term disability is generally required on small groups. What group size threshold does the course mention, and what does this underwriting determine?

    • Fewer than 10 to 20 employees; it determines whether the carrier will offer coverage and at what premiums, not participant eligibility
    • Fewer than 100 employees; it determines the elimination period and benefit duration for each participant
    • Fewer than 25 employees; it determines whether the plan qualifies for stop-loss coverage
    • Fewer than 50 employees; it determines individual participant eligibility for disability benefits
    Show answer

    Fewer than 10 to 20 employees; it determines whether the carrier will offer coverage and at what premiums, not participant eligibility

    The course states that medical underwriting is generally required on small groups (fewer than 10 to 20 employees) and for individuals with high coverage amounts. This underwriting does not determine participant eligibility but rather whether the carrier will offer coverage and appropriate premiums. It does not violate HIPAA.

  26. 126

    For the most recent industry experience reported on short-term disability, what were the ratios of actual to expected claims?

    • Plans with full maternity: 100%; plans without full maternity: 100%
    • Plans with full maternity: 102%; plans without full maternity: 95%
    • Plans with full maternity: 110%; plans without full maternity: 85%
    • Plans with full maternity: 95%; plans without full maternity: 102%
    Show answer

    Plans with full maternity: 102%; plans without full maternity: 95%

    The course states that for the most recent industry experience reported, the ratios of actual to expected were: plans with full maternity — 102%, and plans without full maternity — 95%.

  27. 127

    When plan benefits are modified, the cost changes are not measurable by experience methods. How are they measured?

    • By actuarial trending of historical claims data
    • By benefit content comparisons
    • By community rating using industry-wide claims databases
    • By Monte Carlo simulation of the new benefit structure
    Show answer

    By benefit content comparisons

    The course states that when plan benefits are modified, the effects will appear at once in funding levels, stop-loss premiums, COBRA premiums, etc. Such plan cost changes are not measurable by experience methods; they are measured by benefit content comparisons.

  28. 128

    FAS 112 applies to post-termination benefits including short-term disability. What three conditions trigger FAS 112?

    • Benefit is a defined benefit, plan has a trust, and the trust is qualified under IRC Section 501(c)(9)
    • Benefit is self-funded, plan has more than 100 participants, and benefit duration exceeds 26 weeks
    • Claim cost per participant increases with attained age, benefit increases with length of service, and benefit may be paid while the participant is not deemed an employed worker
    • Plan is subject to ERISA, benefit is not covered by stop-loss, and employer contributions are tax-deductible
    Show answer

    Claim cost per participant increases with attained age, benefit increases with length of service, and benefit may be paid while the participant is not deemed an employed worker

    The course states that FAS 112 is triggered by any of these conditions: (1) claim cost per participant increases with attained age, (2) benefit increases with participant's length of service, and (3) benefit may be paid while the participant is not deemed an employed worker.

  29. 129

    Under the ADA, benefit differentials within a plan based on age, sex, or health condition are permitted under what condition?

    • When it can be actuarially demonstrated that there is parity in the differential considering all relevant factors
    • When the differential applies equally to all participants regardless of disability status
    • When the plan document explicitly discloses the differential and no participant objects within 90 days
    • When the plan has obtained a waiver from the EEOC based on a cost-benefit analysis
    Show answer

    When it can be actuarially demonstrated that there is parity in the differential considering all relevant factors

    The ADA permits benefit differentials within a plan conditional on age, sex, health condition, etc., so long as it may be actuarially demonstrated that there is parity in the differential considering all relevant factors.

  30. 130

    In the ADA actuarial parity example involving advance medical directives, what two benefit levels demonstrate parity?

    • A high-limit lifetime maximum with a directive and a reduced lifetime maximum without a directive
    • A higher coinsurance rate with a directive and a lower coinsurance rate without a directive
    • A lower deductible with a directive and a higher deductible without a directive
    • Inclusion in the HMO option with a directive and restriction to the indemnity option without a directive
    Show answer

    A high-limit lifetime maximum with a directive and a reduced lifetime maximum without a directive

    The course provides an example where typical parity is (a) high-limit lifetime maximum with a directive or (b) reduced lifetime maximum without a directive. The amendment must be supported by actuarial certification of parity.

  31. 131

    In the ADA actuarial parity example, why is the advance medical directive amendment considered cost-neutral?

    • Additional claims from raising the lifetime maximum are offset by reduced claims from savings attributable to the directive, and those with directives are more prudent healthcare purchasers
    • The directive only applies to covered dependent children, whose claims are a negligible portion of total costs
    • The number of participants with directives is too small to materially affect total plan costs
    • The plan's stop-loss coverage absorbs any incremental cost from the higher lifetime maximum
    Show answer

    Additional claims from raising the lifetime maximum are offset by reduced claims from savings attributable to the directive, and those with directives are more prudent healthcare purchasers

    The course explains cost-neutrality on two grounds: (1) Actuarial — additional claims from raising the maximum are offset by reduced claims from directive savings, and (2) Underwriting — those with a medical directive are more prudent (less costly) healthcare purchasers, at least for facility-related care.

  32. 132

    The ADA parity analysis methodology used what simulation technique, and what concern does the course note about the analysis?

    • Deterministic modeling was used, and the concern is that the sample size was too small for statistical significance
    • Monte Carlo simulations were used, and the concern is that because the analysis is so far right on the lognormal curve, any margin of error must be of concern
    • Regression analysis was used, and the concern is that the correlation between directive status and claims was weak
    • Stochastic simulation was used, and the concern is that the results were based on outdated mortality tables
    Show answer

    Monte Carlo simulations were used, and the concern is that because the analysis is so far right on the lognormal curve, any margin of error must be of concern

    The course states that several simple models were created using Monte Carlo simulations. The concern noted is that because the analysis is so far right on the lognormal curve, any margin of error must be of concern.

  33. 133

    Why does the course argue that the statutory safety net (life and health guaranty association) will typically NOT protect the employer when a stop-loss insurer fails?

    • Because guaranty association coverage is limited to the first $300,000 per claimant, which is below most specific stop-loss deductibles
    • Because guaranty association coverage will in most instances not be available to protect the employer where such failure occurs, since the employer (not individuals) holds the stop-loss policy
    • Because guaranty associations only cover fully insured group health plans, not stop-loss contracts
    • Because the employer must file a claim within 30 days of the insurer's failure, which rarely happens in practice
    Show answer

    Because guaranty association coverage will in most instances not be available to protect the employer where such failure occurs, since the employer (not individuals) holds the stop-loss policy

    The course states that insurers can fall on bad financial times and fail, and the statutory safety net known as the life and health guaranty association coverage will, in most instances, not be available to protect the employer where such failure occurs. This is one of the arguments against the fully insured equivalent method for COBRA.

  34. 134

    First generation cost-containment provisions all have what effect on claims processing and, consequently, on claim reserves?

    • They accelerate claims processing by standardizing approval procedures
    • They have no effect on processing speed but reduce the total claims paid
    • They reduce the claim reserve by eliminating unnecessary claims before processing
    • They slow down claims processing, which increases the claim reserve
    Show answer

    They slow down claims processing, which increases the claim reserve

    Question 3 of Section B states that first generation cost-containment provisions all have the effect of slowing down claims processing. Examples include second opinions, pre-cert and recert, preadmission testing, and ambulatory surgery. Slower processing means a larger claim reserve.

  35. 135

    Under SOP 92-6, what valuation methods should be followed when a health and welfare plan has plan assets?

    • FAS 106 (Employers' Accounting for Postretirement Benefits Other Than Pensions)
    • FAS 112 (Employers' Accounting for Postemployment Benefits)
    • FAS 35 (Accounting and Reporting by Defined Benefit Pension Plans)
    • FAS 5 (Accounting for Contingencies)
    Show answer

    FAS 35 (Accounting and Reporting by Defined Benefit Pension Plans)

    The course states that where a health and welfare plan has plan assets, the valuation methods should follow FAS 35 (Accounting and Reporting by Defined Benefit Pension Plans). This is one of the significant changes SOP 92-6 introduced to plan financials.

  36. 136

    An employer's self-funded health plan is challenged under a state insurance regulation. The employer invokes ERISA preemption. Which historical precedent most directly supports the argument that self-funding does not constitute the business of insurance for state regulatory purposes?

    • The ERISA savings clause, which preserves state laws that regulate insurance companies
    • The FMC Corp. v. Holliday decision holding that state anti-subrogation statutes apply to self-funded plans
    • The McCarran-Ferguson Act's delegation of insurance regulation exclusively to the federal government
    • The Missouri Supreme Court's holding in the Monsanto case that self-funding is not doing a business of insurance
    Show answer

    The Missouri Supreme Court's holding in the Monsanto case that self-funding is not doing a business of insurance

    Prior to ERISA, Missouri challenged Monsanto's self-funded plan, and the Missouri Supreme Court held that self-funding did not constitute doing a business of insurance for purposes of state regulation. This was an important pre-ERISA precedent. ERISA later codified this concept through the deemer clause.

  37. 137

    Under ERISA's civil enforcement provisions, what is the daily penalty a court may assess against a plan administrator who willfully refuses to provide requested information to a participant?

    • $100 per day
    • $250 per day
    • $50 per day
    • $500 per day
    Show answer

    $100 per day

    ERISA §502 provides that a court may assess a $100/day penalty against a plan administrator for willful refusal to provide requested information to a participant or beneficiary. This penalty serves as a deterrent to ensure plan administrators comply with disclosure obligations.

  38. 138

    A plan participant discovers that her fiduciary breached his duty three years ago. She files suit five years after the breach occurred but only two years after discovering it. Under ERISA's statute of limitations for fiduciary breach claims, what is the likely outcome?

    • The claim is barred because ERISA requires all fiduciary claims to be filed within two years of the breach
    • The claim is barred because it was not filed within three years of the breach occurring
    • The claim is timely because the six-year-from-breach deadline has not passed and the three-year-from-discovery deadline has not passed
    • The claim is timely only if the participant can prove the fiduciary committed fraud
    Show answer

    The claim is timely because the six-year-from-breach deadline has not passed and the three-year-from-discovery deadline has not passed

    ERISA's statute of limitations for fiduciary breach claims is the earlier of six years after the breach occurred or three years after the breach was known or correctable. Here, the participant is within both windows: five years from breach (under the six-year limit) and two years from discovery (under the three-year limit). The six-year fraud exception is not needed.

  39. 139

    Which federal law, enacted in 1948, preempts federal regulation of insurance so long as states provide effective regulation?

    • The Employee Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA)
    • The McCarran-Ferguson Act
    • The Revenue Act of 1978
    • The Taft-Hartley Act
    Show answer

    The McCarran-Ferguson Act

    The McCarran-Ferguson Act, enacted in 1948, preempts federal regulation of insurance so long as states provide effective regulation. This act established the principle of state primacy in insurance regulation. Were federal regulation to replace state regulation, some advantages enjoyed by self-funders over fully insured plans would be eliminated.

  40. 140

    A fiduciary of a self-funded plan knowingly allows a co-fiduciary to engage in a prohibited transaction but does not directly participate. Under ERISA, which standard of co-fiduciary liability most directly applies?

    • The fiduciary is liable because he knowingly concealed the breach by failing to act on his knowledge
    • The fiduciary is liable only if the DOL formally notifies him of the co-fiduciary's breach
    • The fiduciary is liable only if the plan document specifically assigns oversight responsibility to him
    • The fiduciary is not liable because only direct participants in prohibited transactions face personal liability
    Show answer

    The fiduciary is liable because he knowingly concealed the breach by failing to act on his knowledge

    Under ERISA, a fiduciary assumes liability for a co-fiduciary's breach if he or she (a) knowingly partakes or conceals the breach by acting or not acting on the knowledge, (b) fails in his or her own duties so as to cause the co-fiduciary to breach, or (c) fails to remedy a breach once it is known. Knowingly allowing the breach without acting triggers liability under the first prong.

  41. 141

    Under ERISA, which of the following correctly describes where an ERISA civil action must originate?

    • A federal appeals court with original jurisdiction over all ERISA claims
    • A federal district court, though state courts may have concurrent jurisdiction for actions to recover benefits or clarify rights
    • A state court of general jurisdiction exclusively, unless the amount in controversy exceeds $75,000
    • Any court selected by the plaintiff without restriction, as ERISA does not impose jurisdictional requirements
    Show answer

    A federal district court, though state courts may have concurrent jurisdiction for actions to recover benefits or clarify rights

    All ERISA actions must originate in a federal district court. The one exception is that a state court of competent jurisdiction may have concurrent jurisdiction in actions to recover benefits or to enforce or clarify rights. The district court has jurisdiction without respect to the amount in controversy or the citizenship of the parties.

  42. 142

    A self-funded plan's subrogation clause is challenged under a state anti-subrogation statute. The plan cites ERISA preemption. Based on the line of cases discussed in the course, which outcome is most consistent with established precedent?

    • The court must first determine whether the plan has stop-loss coverage before deciding the preemption question
    • The state anti-subrogation statute is preempted by ERISA, and the self-funded plan may enforce its subrogation rights
    • The state anti-subrogation statute is saved from preemption under the insurance savings clause because subrogation relates to insurance
    • The state statute applies because subrogation rights are not governed by ERISA but by state contract law
    Show answer

    The state anti-subrogation statute is preempted by ERISA, and the self-funded plan may enforce its subrogation rights

    Multiple cases (Davis v. Line Construction Benefit Fund, Hunt v. Sherman, Dillard v. Teamsters, United Food & Commercial Workers v. PACYGA, and FMC Corp. v. Holliday) have established that self-funded plans may enforce subrogation rights because state anti-subrogation statutes are preempted by ERISA. The savings clause does not apply because self-funded plans cannot be deemed insurance under the deemer clause.

  43. 143

    Under ERISA, which individuals or entities may bring a civil action for breach of fiduciary liabilities?

    • Only participants and beneficiaries, as fiduciaries cannot sue other fiduciaries
    • Only the DOL and the plan administrator
    • Only the DOL, as fiduciary breach enforcement is an exclusive governmental function
    • The DOL, a participant, a beneficiary, or another fiduciary
    Show answer

    The DOL, a participant, a beneficiary, or another fiduciary

    ERISA §502 provides that actions for breach of fiduciary liabilities may be brought by the DOL, a participant, a beneficiary, or a fiduciary. This broad standing ensures that fiduciary breaches can be addressed by multiple stakeholders. Personal liability for the breaching fiduciary may result.

  44. 144

    In the United Food & Commercial Workers v. PACYGA case, the court held that stop-loss (excess loss) coverage was not insurance for purposes of resolving the ERISA preemption issue. Which of the following was NOT among the court's reasons?

    • Companion life benefits are to be treated separately from the excess loss coverage
    • The insurer does not become involved in the administration of the self-funded plan
    • The participant is in no way the beneficiary of the stop-loss policy
    • The stop-loss policy was underwritten by a captive insurance company related to the employer
    Show answer

    The stop-loss policy was underwritten by a captive insurance company related to the employer

    In United Food & Commercial Workers v. PACYGA, the court held that excess loss was not insurance for preemption purposes because (1) the participant is in no way the beneficiary, (2) the insurer does not become involved in plan administration, and (3) companion life benefits are treated separately. The court did not base its reasoning on captive insurance arrangements.

  45. 145

    Under the Revenue Act of 1978, which coverage test must be met to satisfy nondiscrimination requirements for self-insured medical reimbursement plans?

    • A minimum of 90% of all employees must be covered under the plan
    • A minimum participation test requiring at least 50 employees or 40% of the workforce
    • Either the qualified pension plan test, a 70%-80% coverage test, or a classification test
    • Only the 70%-80% coverage test is acceptable; no alternatives exist
    Show answer

    Either the qualified pension plan test, a 70%-80% coverage test, or a classification test

    The Revenue Act of 1978 requires breadth of coverage for self-insured medical reimbursement plans. Either the qualified pension plan test, a 70%-80% coverage test, or a classification test must be satisfied. These tests ensure that self-funded plans do not discriminate in favor of key employees.

  46. 146

    An employer files for Chapter 11 bankruptcy. The self-funded health plan has $500,000 in unpaid claims for services rendered in the four months prior to the bankruptcy filing. How are the participants' rights to these unpaid benefits characterized under bankruptcy law?

    • They are administrative expenses and receive the highest priority among all creditor claims
    • They are secured claims because ERISA creates an automatic lien on employer assets for unpaid plan benefits
    • They are unsecured claims for contributions to an employee benefit plan, ranking below wages but above other unsecured claims, limited to $2,000 per participant
    • They have no priority status and rank equally with all other general unsecured creditors
    Show answer

    They are unsecured claims for contributions to an employee benefit plan, ranking below wages but above other unsecured claims, limited to $2,000 per participant

    Under bankruptcy law, unsecured claims for employee benefit plan contributions have a specific priority ranking: below wages/salaries but above other unsecured claims. The claims must relate to services incurred within the six-month period prior to filing, and the maximum amount is $2,000 per participant. Self-funded plan participants' rights to unpaid benefits are essentially those of general creditors but with this limited priority.

  47. 147

    Under ERISA, the ERISA preemption provision has which primary significance for self-funded healthcare benefit plans?

    • It eliminates all federal oversight of self-funded plans, leaving them entirely unregulated
    • It has contributed significantly to the growth of self-funded plans by generally shielding them from state regulation
    • It mandates that self-funded plans comply with every state insurance regulation where they have participants
    • It requires all self-funded plans to obtain a federal license before commencing operations
    Show answer

    It has contributed significantly to the growth of self-funded plans by generally shielding them from state regulation

    The ERISA preemption provision has contributed significantly to the growth of self-funded healthcare benefit plans. Since ERISA was enacted, the deemer clause prevents states from deeming self-funded plans to be insurance, which generally means states cannot regulate them. This is a key competitive advantage over fully insured plans.

  48. 148

    A plan supervisor becomes aware that an employer client has been delaying claims funding and using employee contributions for operating cash flow. The plan supervisor takes no action. What is the plan supervisor's exposure?

    • The plan supervisor has no liability because the employer, not the plan supervisor, is the named fiduciary responsible for funding
    • The plan supervisor is liable only for future claims incurred after discovering the problem, not past unpaid claims
    • The plan supervisor may be expected to pay the claims under the co-fiduciary obligation rules for failing to act on knowledge of the employer's wrongful conduct
    • The plan supervisor's only obligation is to report the employer to the DOL; there is no personal financial liability
    Show answer

    The plan supervisor may be expected to pay the claims under the co-fiduciary obligation rules for failing to act on knowledge of the employer's wrongful conduct

    The course specifically warns that where the plan supervisor is mindful of wrongly motivated employers who capture reserves or gain a float advantage with employee contributions and does nothing, the plan supervisor may be expected to pay the claims under the co-fiduciary obligation rules. Plan supervisors should be alert to these motivations and terminate such arrangements.

  49. 149

    Which of the following is the correct order of debt priority under federal bankruptcy law?

    • Administrative expenses, then employee benefit plan contributions, then wages/salaries, then other unsecured claims
    • Administrative expenses, then unsecured claims arising after filing but before trustee appointment, then wages/salaries, then employee benefit plan contributions, then other unsecured claims
    • Employee benefit plan contributions, then wages/salaries, then administrative expenses, then other unsecured claims
    • Wages/salaries, then employee benefit plan contributions, then administrative expenses, then other unsecured claims
    Show answer

    Administrative expenses, then unsecured claims arising after filing but before trustee appointment, then wages/salaries, then employee benefit plan contributions, then other unsecured claims

    Under federal bankruptcy law, the priority order is: (1) administrative expenses, (2) unsecured claims arising after bankruptcy filing but prior to appointment of trustees, (3) unsecured claims for wages/salaries/commissions/vacation/severance/sick pay/disability, (4) unsecured claims for contributions to an employee benefit plan, and (5) other unsecured claims. Employee benefit contributions rank below wages.

  50. 150

    A state enacts a law requiring TPAs to cover specific mental health benefits when processing claims for health plans. The law technically applies to the TPA, not the plan itself. Under recent case law trends regarding ERISA preemption of vendor-focused state laws, what is the most likely outcome?

    • The state law is likely preempted because it indirectly imposes a benefit mandate on an ERISA-covered plan through a requirement applied to the TPA
    • The state law is preempted only if the TPA administers plans for employers in more than one state
    • The state law is valid because ERISA preemption never applies to laws regulating vendors rather than plans
    • The state law is valid because mental health parity is a federal mandate that reinforces the state's authority
    Show answer

    The state law is likely preempted because it indirectly imposes a benefit mandate on an ERISA-covered plan through a requirement applied to the TPA

    In general, ERISA preemption is weaker when a state law applies to a vendor rather than the plan itself. However, state laws that try to impose obligations on ERISA-covered group health plans indirectly through requirements on TPAs usually fail, especially if the state law requires a plan change or mandates a particular benefit. A law requiring TPAs to cover specific benefits effectively mandates plan benefits.

CSFS is the Certified Self-Funding Specialist designation. These are my own practice questions, written while studying for the exam. This site is not affiliated with, endorsed by, or connected to the organisation that administers the CSFS designation, and nothing here is official exam content or a substitute for the course material.

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